The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, more at http://www.certkingdom.com
Exam Code: PEGACPDC25V1
Language: English
Retirement Date: N/A
60 Questions
1 hr 30 mins
Passing Score: 70%
Applies to: Pega Customer Decision Hub '25
Exam Code: PEGACPDC25V1
Language: English
Retirement Date: N/A
Beginner English
Prerequisites Decisioning Consultant
The Certified Pega Decisioning Consultant certification is for professionals
participating in the design and development of a Pega Customer Decision Hub™
solution. This certification validates you have the skills to apply design
principles of Next-Best-Action Designer, 1:1 Operations Manager, Decision
Strategies, and Predictive Analytics.
Exam topics
Next-Best-Action concepts (12%) One-to-one customer engagement
Customer engagement blueprint
Optimize the customer value in the contact center
Essentials of always-on outbound
Define the starting population
Optimize the next-best-action strategy
Actions and treatments (12%) Define and manage customer actions
Present a single offer on the web
Define an action for outbound
Engagement policies (15%)
Define customer engagement policies
Create an engagement strategy
Create and manage customer journeys
Contact policy and volume constraints (13%)
Avoid overexposure of actions
Avoid overexposure of actions on outbound
Limit action volume on outbound
AI and Arbitration (8%)
Action arbitration
Action prioritization with AI
Prioritize actions with business levers
Channels (10%)
Real-time containers
Create a real-time container
Send offer emails
Share action details with third-party distributors
Decision strategies (15%)
Create and understand decision strategies
Create engagement strategies using customer credit score
Business agility in 1:1 customer engagement (15%)
Agility in a customer engagement project
Change management process
Building your business operations team
Life cycle of a change request
Change request types
Managing Brand Voice with Pega GenAI
Launching a new offer on web
Updating existing actions
Updating actions in bulk
Enhanced email editor
Implementing business changes using Revision Manager
Sample Question and Answers
QUESTION 1 U+ Bank observes that some customers receive the same credit card offer
multiple times within a
short period, which results in dissatisfaction.
The bank wants to suppress a
specific credit card offer if
it has been shown three times within seven days.
What should you configure in the Contact Policy to prevent a specific credit
card offer from being
shown to a customer more than three times in seven days?
A. Set the Tracking Level to Group and the Outcome Type to Impressions.
B. Set the Tracking Level to Group and the Outcome Type to Clicks.
C. Set the Tracking Level to Action and the Outcome Type to Impressions.
D. Set the Tracking Level to Action and the Outcome Type to Clicks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION 2 A mortgage company defines a new suppression policy to limit promotional
emails for home loan
offers. The policy is complete, but it must be applied to all to home loan
actions. The implementation
team must associate this policy with the appropriate business structure.
Where should the team associate the contact policy to apply it to home loan
promotions?
A. The Engagement policy tab to apply the policy to home loan action group.
B. The Contact policy configuration to update outcome tracking preferences only.
C. The Constraints tab to edit customer contact limits for email channels.
D. The Designer settings to modify global suppression rules for home loan action
group.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION 3 In the following figure, a volume constraint uses the Return any action that
does not exceed
constraint mode with the three following action type constraints that have
remaining limits:
1.Maximum 50 Daily with Action: Protect Your Device, 5 remaining
2.Maximum 75 Daily with Action: MyFone Buds, 7 remaining
3.Maximum 25 Daily with Action: MyFone AirPods Pro, 0 remaining
A customer, CUST-01, qualifies for all the three actions. Given this scenario,
how many actions does
the system select for CUST-01 in the outbound run?
A. 3
B. 0
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A financial services organization introduces a new policy that limits each
customer to two
promotional emails per month. To meet compliance requirements, the
implementation team must
configure this limit in the Next-Best-Action Designer.
Which configuration steps achieve the desired email frequency limit?
A. Set customer contact limits for the email channel with a two-message monthly
restriction.
B. Configure an engagement policy that applies email limits to customer groups
only.
C. Create a suppression policy that uses a two-email threshold and a monthly
tracking period.
D. Establish context-level limits that track two monthly interactions across
channels.
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 An outbound run identifies 150 Standard card offers, 75 on email, and 75 on
the SMS channel. If the
following volume constraint Is applied, how many actions are delivered by the
outbound run?
A. 75 emails 25 SMSes
B. 100
C. 75 SMSes and 25 emails
D. 150
The AP-209 exam refers to the Salesforce Advanced Field Service Accredited
Professional certification, a 75-minute test with 46 multiple-choice questions,
requiring a 73% to pass, focusing on advanced Salesforce Field Service
implementation and design, available through platforms like Kryterion and
Pearson VUE. You can find detailed syllabi, practice tests, and sample questions
on sites like Trailhead Academy, VMExam, and P2PExams.
Key Exam Details Exam Name: Salesforce Advanced Field Service Accredited Professional.
Code: AP-209.
Provider: Salesforce.
Format: 46 multiple-choice/multiple-select questions.
Duration: 75 minutes.
Passing Score: 73%.
Cost: Around $150 USD (check official Salesforce for exact fees).
Proctoring: Kryterion Webassessor or Pearson VUE.
What it Covers Implementation Strategies & Design.
Core Field Service Functionality.
Advanced Capabilities (e.g., dispatch, scheduling, mobile).
How to Prepare Salesforce Trailhead: Review the official Field Service resources and
implementation guides.
Practice Exams: Use practice tests from reputable sites to get familiar with
question types and time management.
Study Guides: Utilize detailed syllabus breakdowns to identify knowledge gaps.
QUESTION 1 Green Energy Solutions would like to become more competitive by providing a
better service
experience to prospects calling in to request an initial assessment visit.
What should a consultant recommend to the business in order to achieve such a
goal?
A. Increase the length of the arrival window offered to the customer from 4
hours to 8 hours, which
gives the customer more flexibility in preparing for the visit
B. Reduce the length of the arrival window offered to the customers from 4 hours
to 2 hours, taking
into consideration that this change might impact the quality of optimization
C. Reduce the length of the arrival window offered to the customers from 4 hours
to 2 hours, which
will also allow further flexibility when running optimization
D. Increase the length of the arrival window offered to the customer from 4
hours to 8 hours, as it
will ensure that the assessment visit will be completed before the arrival
window ends
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question addresses the trade-off between Customer Experience and Schedule
Optimization.
Reducing the arrival window (e.g., from 4 hours to 2 hours) is a common strategy
to improve
customer service. Customers prefer shorter wait times and more precise
appointments. However, a
consultant must identify the technical impact of this business decision.
Option B is correct because it acknowledges the benefit (customer experience)
while correctly
identifying the risk. Smaller arrival windows serve as tighter constraints on
the scheduling engine
(Optimization). The engine has less "wiggle room" to shuffle appointments, which
can lead to lower
overall utilization or higher travel times.
Option C is incorrect because reducing the window decreases (restricts)
flexibility for optimization, it
does not increase it.
Options A and D suggest increasing the window to 8 hours. While this is great
for the optimization
engine (maximum flexibility), it is generally considered a poor customer
experience to ask a prospect
to wait all day (8 hours), contradicting the business goal of being "more
competitive."
QUESTION 2
An admin notices that an org currently has a large number of qualified
candidates per Service Appointment.
How can the admin reduce the number of candidates per appointment in order to
improve optimization quality?
A. The admin should use database Service Objectives such as 'Minimize Travel',
'Resource Priority' and 'Resource Preferences'
B. The admin should move some of the resources to a different Service Territory
with fewer
resources; alternatively, create a new Service Territory and assign it resources
C. The admin should log a support case, as the system should be able to handle
this amount of qualified candidates
D. The admin should reduce the number of available candidates for each
appointment by adding
additional Work Rules, starting with the 'Match Territory', 'Working
Territories', 'Maximum Travel
From Home' and 'Extended Match' Work Rules in case they are not already applied
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Salesforce Field Service, the scheduling engine creates a list of "Qualified
Candidates" based on
Work Rules (Hard Constraints). If a search returns too many candidates, it
places a heavy load on the
CPU and can degrade optimization performance.
Option D is correct because Work Rules are the mechanism used to filter
candidates. Adding rules
like Match Territory (ensuring the resource belongs to the territory), Maximum
Travel from Home
(filtering out distant resources), or Extended Match (matching custom criteria)
effectively reduces the
pool of eligible technicians before the system attempts to score them. This
improves the speed and
quality of the schedule.
Option A is incorrect because Service Objectives are "Soft Constraints." They
rank candidates (giving
them a score of 0-100) but do not remove them from the list.
Option B is a manual structural change that doesn't address the configuration
issue.
Option C is incorrect because optimization performance is directly controlled by
the efficiency of the
configuration (Scheduling Policy).
QUESTION 3
Green Energy Solutions provide two types of services: 'New Installs' (high
revenue, high priority with
a 3 day SLA) and 'Inspections' (proactive, low priority activities due 3 months
out). The company
incurs a penalty for missing due dates which the service manager would like to
avoid. However, not
at the expense of a new install.
What should the consultant's recommendation be in such a case?
A. Add the 'ASAP' Service Objective to the Scheduling Policy, with a 'Relevance
Group' that only
considers new installs. Set the weight of that Service Objective to be higher
than the 'Priority' Service Objective
B. Set up an automation that sets the priority value to '1' for all inspections
that are due tomorrow,
and set the priority of the New install jobs to '1' as well
C. Use a 'Dynamic Priority' formula field that increases the value of the
priority each day, up to a
value of '2' (using the 1-100 scale) and set the priority of the new install
jobs to '1'
D. For inspections with a due date taking place in the next 7 days, set the
'Schedule Over Lower Priority' Boolean to 'True'
Answer: B
Explanation:
The goal is to prevent low-priority "Inspections" from being ignored
indefinitely until they miss their
deadline, without permanently ranking them above high-value "New Installs."
Option B is correct (based on the scenario's specific constraints). By using
automation to elevate the
Inspection's priority to '1' (High) only when it is due "tomorrow," the system
treats it as urgent only
when necessary to avoid the penalty. Since "New Installs" are also Priority '1',
the two will compete
on equal footing on that final day, ensuring the Inspection has a fighting
chance to be scheduled
alongside high-value work.
Option C (Dynamic Priority) is a standard solution for "aging" work. However,
the option states it caps
the value at '2'. In standard SFS priority (where 1 is highest), a '2' will
never beat a '1'. Therefore, the
inspection would still likely be bumped by a New Install (Priority 1) even on
its due date, leading to a penalty.
Option D ("Schedule Over Lower Priority") is used for emergency reshuffling, but
does not inherently
solve the prioritization logic between these two specific task types.
QUESTION 4
Green Energy Solutions has resources in multiple countries and time zones. Each
country has
different holidays and permitted working hours.
What should the consultant configure to support this?
A. Service Territories, Resource Capacity and Business Hours
B. Service Territories, Operating Hours and Resource Absences
C. Work Types, Resource Availabilities and Operating Hours
D. Skills, Operating Hours, Time Slots and Holidays
Answer: B
Explanation:
To model international workforces in Salesforce Field Service, specific objects
handle geography,
time, and exceptions.
Option B is correct.
Service Territories: Used to define the geographical areas (Countries/Regions).
Crucially, the Time
Zone is defined on the Service Territory record.
Operating Hours: Used to define the "Permitted Working Hours" (e.g., Mon-Fri,
9-5). These are
assigned to the Service Territory or Service Territory Member.
Resource Absences: Used to model time off, such as public holidays or sick days,
where the resource
is unavailable. (Note: Holidays can also be linked directly to Operating Hours,
but Resource Absences
are the distinct records created on the Gantt).
Option A is incorrect because "Business Hours" is a Service Cloud (Support)
object used for Case
Entitlements, not Field Service scheduling. "Resource Capacity" is used for
contractors (Capacity-
Based Scheduling), not for defining standard working hours.
QUESTION 5
A customer wants to collect a mobile worker's geolocation history in the Field
Service Mobile App
only for some of the resources, while for others, they want this option to be
disabled.
How can a consultant implement this requirement?
A. Under the 'Field Service Mobile Settings', set the 'Collect Service Resource
Geolocation History' to 'True'
B. Under the 'Field Service Settings', go to the 'Mobile App Configuration' tab
and select which users
should be included in the geolocation collection process
C. Under the 'Field Service Settings', go to the 'Mobile App Configuration' tab
and select which
profiles should be included in the geolocation collection process
D. Create two 'Field Service Mobile Settings' records and assign it to the
relevant profiles, one with
the 'Collect Service Resource Geolocation History' set to 'True' and the other
set to 'False'
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Field Service Mobile Settings configuration controls the behavior of the
mobile app (branding,
location tracking, flows, etc.).
Option D is correct. To apply different settings to different groups of users,
you must create multiple
Field Service Mobile Settings records. You assign these settings records to
specific User Profiles.
You would create one settings record with "Collect Service Resource Geolocation
History" enabled
(for the tracked users).
You would create a second settings record with it disabled (for the untracked
users).
You then map the relevant Profiles to the appropriate Settings record.
Options A, B, and C imply global settings or non-existent tabs ("Mobile App
Configuration" tab where
you select users/profiles directly doesn't exist in the global settings in this
manner; it is done via the
specific Mobile Settings object assignments).
The Plat-Admn-202 is the Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder
exam, testing your skills in declarative customization, data modeling, security,
automation (Flows, Approval Processes), reports/dashboards, and mobile
experience optimization, with 65 questions in 105 mins, costing around $200 USD,
and requires understanding Salesforce fundamentals to pass. You prepare using
Trailhead, sample questions, and practice tests from Salesforce or third-party
providers.
Key Exam Details: Exam Name: Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder.
Exam Code: Plat-Admn-202.
Certification Provider: Salesforce.
Duration: 105 minutes.
Questions: 65.
Cost: Around $200 USD (check Salesforce for current pricing).
Passing Score: ~63-65% (need about 39 correct answers).
What You'll Be Tested On (Syllabus Areas): Salesforce Fundamentals: Declarative vs. programmatic customization,
AppExchange.
Data Model: Creating objects, fields, relationships, validation rules.
Security & Access: Object, record, field access, sharing solutions.
Business Logic & Automation: Flows, Approval Processes, Process Builder (though
declining).
User Experience: Page layouts, actions, mobile optimization.
Analytics: Reports, report types, dashboards.
How to Prepare: Official Trailhead: Salesforce Trailhead for fundamentals and modules.
Sample Questions: Salesforce Sample Questions.
Practice Tests: Use resources like Focus on Force or P2PExams for realistic
practice.
Sample Question and Answers
QUESTION 1 DreamHouse Realty wants to make sure an Opportunity has a field
Expected_Close_Date_c
populated before it is allowed to enter the qualified stage.
How should an app builder solution this request?
A. Record Type
B. Validation Rule
C. Activity History
D. Page Layout
Answer: B
Explanation:
A validation rule is a formula that evaluates the data in one or more fields and
returns a value of
oeTrue or oeFalse . Validation rules verify that the data a user enters in a
record meets the standards
you specify before the user can save the record. In this case, a validation rule
can be used to check if
the Expected_Close_Date_c field is populated before the Opportunity stage is set
to qualified
QUESTION 2
An app builder notices several Accounts converted from Leads are missing
information they expected to be caught via Account validation rules.
What could be the source of this issue?
A. The lead settings are unchecked to require validation for converted leads.
B. Account validation rules fail to validate on records converted from a lead.
C. The lead settings are allowing users to intentionally bypass validation
rules.
D. Lead validation rules fail to validate on records when they are being
converted.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The lead settings have an option to require validation for converted leads. If
this option is unchecked,
then the Account validation rules will not be enforced when a lead is converted
to an Account. This
could result in missing or incorrect information on the Account records
QUESTION 3
An App Builder at UVC would like to prevent users from creating new records on
an Account related
list by overriding standard buttons. Which two should the App Builder consider
before overriding standard buttons?
A. Standard buttons can be changed on lookup dialogs, list views, and search
result layouts
B. Standard buttons can be overridden with a Visualforce page
C. Standard buttons that are not available for overrides can still be hidden on
page layouts
D. Standard buttons can be overridden, relocated on the detail page, and
relabeled
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Standard buttons can be overridden with a Visualforce page to provide custom
functionality or user
interface. For example, you can override the New button on an object to display
a custom Visualforce
page instead of the standard page layout3. Standard buttons that are not
available for overrides can
still be hidden on page layouts to prevent users from accessing them. For
example, you can hide the
Delete button on an object to prevent users from deleting records
QUESTION 4
The Service Manager provided the app builder with color code requirements for
case age on open cases.
New cases populate a green circle
Day-old cases populate a yellow circle
Three-day-old cases populate a red circle
How should an app builder implement this requirement?
A. Formula Field
B. Quick Action
C. Custom Button
D. Lightning Web Component
Answer: A
Explanation:
A formula field is a read-only field that derives its value from a formula
expression you define.
The formula field is updated when any of the source fields change. You can use
formula fields to display
images based on certain conditions. In this case, a formula field can be used to
display a green,
yellow, or red circle image based on the case age.
QUESTION 5
Universal Containers (UC) has a time-sensitive need for a custom component to be
built in 4 weeks;
UC developers require additional enablement to complete the work and are
backlogged by several months.
Which option should an app builder suggest to meet this requirement?
A. Use an AppExchange solution.
B. Build a screen flow page.
C. Build a Lightning record page.
D. Use a Boit solution
Answer: A
Explanation:
An AppExchange solution is a pre-built application or component that can be
installed from the
Salesforce AppExchange, which is an online marketplace for Salesforce products.
AppExchange
solutions can help you meet your business needs quickly and efficiently, without
requiring much
development effort or expertise. You can browse and search for AppExchange
solutions by category,
industry, rating, price, and more.
The D-ECS-DY-23: Dell Technologies ECS Deploy 2023 exam is a certification
exam that validates a candidate's skills in deploying, configuring, and
monitoring Dell EMC Elastic Cloud Storage (ECS) solutions. Passing the exam
leads to the Dell Technologies Specialist - Implementation Engineer, ECS
certification
Exam Details Exam Code: D-ECS-DY-23
Exam Name: Dell Technologies ECS Deploy 2023
Target Audience: Aspiring cloud professionals, storage administrators, and
engineers.
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 45 questions
Passing Score: 63%
Format: Multiple-choice, multiple-response, and scenario-based questions.
Prerequisites: No formal prerequisites, but a basic understanding of storage and
cloud concepts is recommended.
Scheduling: The exam can be taken online with a proctor or at an authorized
Pearson VUE test center. Registration is available through the Dell Technologies
Certification portal.
Exam Topics
The exam focuses on the knowledge and activities involved in implementing and
managing ECS solutions. The approximate distribution of total questions across
topics is as follows:
ECS Overview (16%): Key features, architecture, deployment scenarios, and
Data-at-Rest Encryption (D@RE) features.
ECS Implementation (36%): Site preparation, OS and software installation,
initial configuration, and troubleshooting.
ECS Administration (22%): Data protection, configuration using the portal,
managing access control, quotas, and monitoring.
ECS Data Client Access (18%): Configuring integration with Amazon S3 and
OpenStack Swift, using the ECS Portal, CLI, REST APIs, and GeoDrive.
ECS Integrated Solutions (8%): Integration with Dell Cloud Tier, PowerScale
CloudPools, and NetWorker with CloudBoost.
Certification Overview
This certification focuses on skills of a deployment engineer to install,
configure and monitor the ECS object storage solution.
Certification Requirements
To successfully complete this certification, a candidate must:
Proven Professional Website
Engage with your peers in our Proven Professional Community
1. Have a sufficient knowledgebase/skill set through hands-on product experience
and/or by consuming the recommended training.
2. Pass the Dell ECS Deploy 2023 exam.
Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of December 8, 2023
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates Certifications to reflect
technical currency and relevance. Please check the Proven Professional website
regularly for the latest information.
Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
ECS Overview (16%)
• Identify ECS key features, functions, and capabilities
• Differentiate ECS architecture and components
• Describe the ECS solution, including hardware configuration, typical single
and multi-site deployments, and case scenarios
• Identify ECS D@RE features and functionality and Active Directory integration
with ECS
ECS Implementation (36%) • Prepare the site and ECS system for installation
• Install the ECS core OS and configure network separation and network
configuration
• Perform ECS Software installation
• Perform the initial configuration of an ECS
• Troubleshoot ECS installation issues
ECS Administration (22%) • Define how ECS packages and protects data within a local site and
federation
• Configure ECS using the portal
• Configure ARM, ACLs, quotas, or retention policies on namespaces and buckets
• Monitor an ECS solution for problems
ECS Data Client Access (18%)
• Configure the ECS integration with Amazon S3 using the ECS Portal, the Amazon
S3 browser, and REST APIs
• Configure the ECS integration with OpenStack Swift using the management
interfaces and APIs
• Configure object client applications with ECS
• Configure ECS GeoDrive, ECS CLI, and REST API
ECS Integrated Solutions (8%)
• Integrate ECS and Dell Cloud Tier
• Integrate ECS and Isilon CloudPools
• Integrate ECS and NetWorker with CloudBoost
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of
the total question set across the exam.
QUESTION 1 The ECS network solution for an organization is designed to have 4x10GbE
uplinks connected to both
Cisco switches. The organization will create the needed port channels.
What additional configuration on the Cisco switches is recommended for high
availability and redundancy?
A. Ring topology
B. Dedicated VLANs
C. Spanning tree protocol
D. Virtual port channel
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When a disk state is suspect, what are the allowable disk operations?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Read and write
D. No operations allowed
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP
What is the correct order of steps in the ECS software installation process?
Answer:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Which ECS array license file enables data services for storage management?
A. ViPR Commodity
B. ViPR HDFS
C. ViPR Unstructured
D. ViPR ECS
Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which command is used to install the ECS software package?
A. sudo ./run.sh
B. sudo bin/installer –operation INSTALL
C. sudo bin/installer –operation INSTALL_HAL
D. sudo tar xfvz ecs*production*.tgz
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 65
Passing Score: 55%
Validation: This exam has been validated against NetSuite Release 23.1
Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Prepare to pass exam: N16300GC10 The Oracle NetSuite Certified SuiteFoundation Specialist certification is
designed for individuals with 6 to 12 months of hands-on and NetSuite
implementation experience and preparing to obtain NS Administrator, ERP
Consultant or Developer certifications.
This certification validates knowledge of NetSuite core concepts and
functionality.
Take recommended training Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle NetSuite SuiteFoundation Specialist
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best
preparation for passing the exam.
Review exam topics The following table lists the exam objectives and their weightings.
Objectives % of Exam
Setup and Administration 18%
NetSuite User Interface 17%
Standard NS Process Flows 28%
SuiteAnalytics 12%
Maintenance and Resources and Data Security 25%
Setup and Administration Identify the general functionality that can be controlled under Enable
Features
Identify the constraints and benefits with renaming records/transactions
Identify NetSuite features requiring NetSuite Support Intervention
Identify the general functionality of classifications/subsidiaries on both
transactions and reporting
Define the uses of these SuiteBuilder elements: Custom Forms, Custom Fields,
Custom Record Types (Intro), Subtabs
Probe high level knowledge of tools and enable features
NetSuite User Interface Identify the different navigation options within NetSuite
Identify options for optimizing browser experience and NetSuite system
performance
Identify user-level preferences which modify the UI experience
Identify utilizing the Shortcut dashboard portlet over the Shortcut menu icon
Identify tools for organizing daily activities, communicating and sharing
documents
Standard NS Process Flows
Identify how to set up Sales Force Automation
Identify elements in progressing through the sales cycle
Identify fields and settings which affect quota and forecast reporting
Identify how to set up and use Case Management
Identify how to set up and use marketing campaigns
Identify how Sales Order form impacts downstream transactions and future GL
impact
Identify impact of controls on steps in order fulfillment
Identify supported payment methods
Identify how Return Authorization form impacts downstream transactions and
future GL impact
Identify impact of controls on steps in Return Management and issuing refunds
Identify Item Types and best uses
Identify the impact of inventory transactions on inventory levels
Identify the functionality of advanced inventory features and potential impacts
of enabling them
Define sales pricing strategy options
Identify how billable items, time, and expenses flow to Invoice
Identify setup of approval and routing options for purchasing
Identify controls and steps in Accounts Payable transactions processes and their
GL impacts
SuiteAnalytics
Identify options for finding records
Define elements of building a saved search
Understand uses of different types of Portlet types
Define the use of the following data management tools: Inline Editing, Mass
Updates, csv imports, csv export, duplicate detection
Maintenance and Resources and Data Security Identify best practices in working with NetSuite Support
Identify the resources to use to locate information on help, functionality,
SuiteApp, enhancements, or "Best Practices", user discussion
Identify resources to learn about NetSuite Release Cycles and New Features
Select options for controlling access to data when creating custom roles
Identify strategies in creating custom roles
Define user authentication functionality
Identify importance of setting up security questions
Identify what can be controlled from Settings Portlet
Identify ways of tracking changes to records in NetSuite
QUESTION 1 An Administrator would like to track changes to the item quantity on a Sales
Order. Which functionality would the Administrator use?
A. Line-Level Audit Trail for Transactions
B. Transaction Audit Trail
C. Transaction System Notes
D. Track Changes Option
Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which portlet displays summary data from reports or Saved Searches for
selected date ranges, with
options to show comparisons between date ranges and to highlight results not
meeting defined thresholds?
A. Reports Snapshot
B. Key Performance Indicators
C. Account Reconciliation Summary
D. SMT Links
Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which record is a non-posting transaction?
A. Retum Receipts
B. Credit Memo
C. Sales Order
D. Statement Charges
Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which statement is true about access levels for NetSuite permissions?
A. The Create access level allows editing records.
B. The Edit access level does not allow deleting records.
C. The Partial access level allows editing but not creating records.
D. The View access level does not allow printing records.
Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which portlet shows a graphical representation of Key Performance Indicator
(KPI) data?
A. Key Performance Indicators
B. KPI Meter
C. KPI Scorecard
D. Trend Graphs
Prepare effectively for the FCSS - FortiSASE 25 Administrator Exam with our
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skills in key areas.
This exam is part of the Fortinet Certified Solution Specalist - Secure Access
Service Edge certification track. This certification validates your ability to
design, administer, monitor, and troubleshoot Fortinet SASE solutions.
Exam: The FCSS - FortiSASE 25 Administrator exam evaluates your knowledge of, and
expertise with, the FortiSASE solution. This exam tests your applied knowledge
of FortiSASE configuration and operation, and includes operational scenarios,
incident analysis, integration with supported products, and troubleshooting
scenarios.
Audience: The FCSS - FortiSASE 25 Administrator exam is intended for network and
security professionals who are responsible for designing, deploying,
maintaining, and analyzing logs in a Fortinet SASE solution.
Exam Details: Exam series: FCSS_SASE_AD-25
Number of questions: 30
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English, Japanese
Product version: FortiSASE 25, FortiOS 7.4, FortiAuthenticator 6.5, FortiClient
7.0 and later
Exam Topics: Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following
areas and tasks:
SASE architecture and components
Integrate FortiSASE in a hybrid network
Identify FortiSASE components
Construct FortiSASE deployment cases
SASE deployment
Implement various types of user onboarding methods
Configure SASE administration settings
Configure and apply security posture checks and compliance rules
SIA, SSA, and SPA
Design security profiles to perform content inspection
Deploy SD-WAN using FortiSASE
Deploy ZTNA
Analytics
Identify potential security threats using FortiSASE logs
Configure dashboards and logging settings
Analyze reports for user traffic and security issues
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills
that are covered on the exam.
Sample Question and Answers
QUESTION 1 In the Secure Private Access (SPA) use case, which two FortiSASE features
facilitate access to corporate applications? (Choose two.)
A. cloud access security broker (CASB)
B. SD-WAN
C. zero trust network access (ZTNA)
D. thin edge
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
SD-WAN allows efficient and secure routing of traffic from users to corporate
applications, while
ZTNA enables secure access control and verification for users connecting to
internal resources, both
of which are essential for Secure Private Access (SPA) in FortiSASE.
QUESTION 2 Which two components are part of onboarding a secure web gateway (SWG)
endpoint for secure
internet access (SIA)? (Choose two.)
A. proxy auto-configuration (PAC) file
B. FortiSASE certificate authority (CA) certificate
C. FortiClient software
D. tunnel policy
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A PAC file is used to redirect client web traffic through the SWG, and
FortiClient software is required
to connect endpoints to the FortiSASE service for secure internet access (SIA).
QUESTION 3 Which two advantages does FortiSASE bring to businesses with microbranch
offices that have FortiAP
deployed for unmanaged devices? (Choose two.)
A. It secures internet access both on and off the network.
B. It uses zero trust network access (ZTNA) tags to perform device compliance
checks.
C. It eliminates the requirement for an on-premises firewall.
D. It simplifies management and provisioning.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION 4 Which information can an administrator monitor using reports generated on
FortiSASE?
A. sanctioned and unsanctioned Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications usage
B. FortiClient vulnerability assessment
C. SD-WAN performance
D. FortiSASE administrator and system events
Answer: A
Explanation:
FortiSASE reporting provides visibility into the usage of sanctioned and
unsanctioned SaaS
applications, enabling administrators to monitor cloud application activity and
enforce security policies.
QUESTION 5 In a FortiSASE secure web gateway (SWG) deployment, which two features
protect against webbased threats? (Choose two.)
A. SSL deep inspection for encrypted web traffic
B. malware protection with sandboxing capabilities
C. web application firewall (WAF) for web applications
D. intrusion prevention system (IPS) for web traffic
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
SSL deep inspection allows FortiSASE to analyze encrypted web traffic for
threats, while malware
protection with sandboxing detects and blocks malicious files delivered through
web channels.
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 75
Passing Score: 55%
Validation: This exam has been validated against NetSuite Release 23.1
Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle NetSuite Certified ERP Consultant Professional
Prepare to pass exam: N16302GC10 The Oracle NetSuite ERP Consultant Professional exam validates advanced
knowledge of NetSuite across financials, analytics, multi-subsidiary
environments, platform capabilities, and security. It confirms a deep
understanding of leading implementations, guiding best practices, and advising
on workflows, scripting, and integrations.
This exam is designed for candidates with 1 - 2 years of NetSuite experience.
Take recommended training Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle NetSuite ERP Consultant Professional
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best
preparation for passing the exam.
Review exam topics The following table lists the exam objectives and their weightings.
Objectives % of Exam
Record to Report 18%
Order to Cash 18%
Design to Build 16%
Procure to Pay 9%
Analytics and Dashboard 10%
Platform 13%
Data Strategy 8%
Data Security 8%
Record to Report
Identify the Features and Preferences which need to be configured to support a
customer specific requirement
Identify the Best Practices of setting up the NetSuite Chart of Accounts
Identify how NetSuite Segments are handled in NetSuite, and when to use custom
segments
Recognize NetSuite recommended Best Practices around period end close, including
when Multi-Book is used
Identify the constraints of features and functionality related to Journal
Entries
Identify how exchange rates are used throughout NetSuite
Identify how NetSuite taxes are configured
Order to Cash
Identify considerations when setting up related Entity records
Given a requirement, determine the configuration/solution for an order process
Identify the implications of shipping setup and use
Determine the considerations for setup and execution of the fulfillment process
Given a scenario, determine appropriate invoicing configuration and setup and
when consolidated invoicing feature is appropriate
Understand the different components of the ARM or Basic Rev Rec module and be
able to set it up to adapt to the recognition method elected by the user
Identify recommended practices for customer payment setup and processing
Given a requirement, determine the configuration/solution for a customer return
process
Design to Build
Select the appropriate Item Type for a given use case
Given a scenario, determine appropriate inventory management options
Identify the transactions and records related to building Assemblies
Identify options in pricing
Recognize how various settings and transactions affect item costing
Procure to Pay
Given a requirement, determine the configuration/solution for a purchase and
receiving process
Given a requirement, determine the configuration/solution for a Vendor Bill,
Bill Payments
Given a requirement, determine the configuration/solution for a vendor return
process
Recognize the elements in configuring the Fixed Assets Module
Analytics and Dashboard
Given a scenario, select the appropriate Dashboard portlet content
Recognize which SQL expressions will yield desired search results (CASE, DECODE,
NULLIF, Date functions)
Identify configuration options available when customizing email alerts for saved
searches
Using Expression Builder, select the expression which would yield the desired
results
Recognize which record to use as the basis of a search to yield a desired result
Identify the feature in saved searches to obtain the described results
Given a scenario, determine whether to use a custom search or a report ?
Identify the advantages of various methods of publishing dashboards
Platform
Given a situation identify a whether a Suitescript or SuiteFlow required to meet
a customer requirement
Identify components of the workflow in a diagram
Recognize available SuiteFlow actions
Compare differences between custom form & field display options and use cases
where appropriate
Identify various methods of restricting users to a particular custom form
Given a custom form layout requirement, determine which feature(s) should be
used, including Advanced PDF
Given a situation identify when to use SuiteBundler
Identify custom field settings for displaying data from other records
Recognize NetSuite recommended practices for creation and use of custom fields
Identify implications of changing field properties or values in a live
environment
Data Strategy
Determine the proper use of advanced options in CSV Import
Understand use of CSV templates and saved mappings
Analyze an error in the CSV Import process to determine the appropriate
resolution
Given a customer requirement, determine migration strategy for transaction
history and opening balances and inventory counts
Organize the steps required to successfully complete an import of CSV records
and sublist data
Data Security Identify the implications of permissions related to accessing and
manipulating data in bulk
Recognize recommended NetSuite practices for creating and assigning custom roles
QUESTION 1 A company purchased and received 100 chairs for a conference room. Four of
the chairs were the wrong style and must be returned.
What steps are performed after approving the Vendor Return Authorization?
A. Shipping the Return > Close Return
B. Shipping the Return > Crediting the Return
C. Shipping the Return > Create a Journal Entry
D. Shipping the Return > Mark Shipped on the Return Authorization
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION 2 Which statement is true about Drop Ship and Special Order items?
A. Can be used for Non-Inventory items for Resale and Inventory items.
B. Items can be marked as both Drop Ship and Special Order.
C. Vendor ships items to customers address.
D. Impact Asset and Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) accounts upon item receipt and
fulfillment.
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which is valid permission level for Persist Search?
A. Create
B. View
C. Edit
D. Full
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A company would like to add the same disclaimer message that prints in the
footer of its PDF Invoices.
Which action should the Administrator take?
A. Edit the custom Invoice form and enter the message in the Disclaimer field.
B. Enter the disclaimer message in the Sales Form Memo field.
C. Edit the custom Invoice form and change the Printing Type to Advanced.
D. Create a custom Disclaimer field on the customized Invoice form and enter the
message.
Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which task can a user role with the Override Period Restriction permission
perform?
A. Post to a locked period.
B. Post to neither closed nor a locked period.
C. Post to a closed period.
D. Post to both a closed and/or a locked period.
