FCSS_SDW_AR-7.6 FCSS - SD-WAN 7.6 Architect Exam

 

Audience
The FCSS - SD-WAN 7.6 Architect exam is intended for network and security professionals responsible for designing, administering, and supporting a secure SD-WAN infrastructure composed of many FortiGate devices.
Exam Details
Time allowed 75 minutes
Exam questions 35-40 questions
Scoring Pass or fail. A score report is available from your Pearson VUE account.
Language English
Product version FortiOS 7.6, FortiManager 7.6

The FCSS_SDW_AR-7.6 exam is for the Fortinet Certified Solution Specialist - SD-WAN 7.6 Architect, testing your skills in designing, deploying, and managing Fortinet's secure SD-WAN using FortiOS 7.6 & FortiManager 7.6, covering topics like SD-WAN rules, routing, ADVPN, troubleshooting, and centralized management. Expect around 38 questions, a 75-minute time limit, and a Pass/Fail result, with scenario-based questions focusing on practical application and troubleshooting complex real-world setups.

Key Details
Exam Name: FCSS - SD-WAN 7.6 Architect
Exam Code: FCSS_SDW_AR-7.6
Focus: Applied knowledge of Fortinet's SD-WAN solution (FortiOS/FortiManager 7.6).
Audience: Network/Security pros designing/supporting SD-WAN.

This video provides an overview of the Fortinet SD-WAN 7.4 Architect exam:

The FCSS - SD-WAN 7.6 Architect exam evaluates your knowledge of, and expertise with, the Fortinet SD-WAN solution.

This exam tests your applied knowledge of the integration, administration, troubleshooting, and central management of a secure SD-WAN solution composed of FortiOS 7.6 and FortiManager 7.6.

Once you pass the exam, you will receive the following exam badge:

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
SD-WAN basic setup
Configure a basic SD-WAN setup
Configure SD-WAN members and zones
Configure Performances SLAs
Rules and routing
Configure SD-WAN rules
Configure SD-WAN routing
Centralized management
Deploy SD-WAN from FortiManager
Implement the branch configuration deployment
Use SD-WAN Manager and overlay orchestration
Advanced IPsec
Deploy a hub-and-spoke IPsec topology for SD-WAN
Configure ADVPN
Configure IPsec multihub, mulitiregion, and large deployments
SD-WAN troubleshooting
Troubleshoot SD-WAN rules and sessions behavior
Troubleshoot SD-WAN routing
Troubleshoot ADVPN

Examkingdom Fortinet FCSS_SDW_AR-7.6 Exam pdf

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
What would FortiNAC-F generate if only one of the security fitters is satisfied?

A. A normal alarm
B. A security event
C. A security alarm
D. A normal event

Answer: D

Explanation:
In FortiNAC-F, Security Triggers are used to identify specific security-related activities based on
incoming data such as Syslog messages or SNMP traps from external security devices (like a FortiGate
or an IDS). These triggers act as a filtering mechanism to determine if an incoming notification should
be escalated from a standard system event to a Security Event.
According to the FortiNAC-F Administrator Guide and relevant training materials for versions 7.2 and
7.4, the Filter Match setting is the critical logic gate for this process. As seen in the exhibit, the "Filter
Match" configuration is set to "All". This means that for the Security Trigger named "Infected File
Detected" to "fire" and generate a Security Event or a subsequent Security Alarm, every single filter
listed in the Security Filters table must be satisfied simultaneously by the incoming data.
In the provided exhibit, there are two filters: one looking for the Vendor "Fortinet" and another
looking for the Sub Type "virus". If only one of these filters is satisfied (for example, a message from
Fortinet that does not contain the "virus" subtype), the logic for the Security Trigger is not met.
Consequently, FortiNAC-F does not escalate the notification. Instead, it processes the incoming data
as a Normal Event, which is recorded in the Event Log but does not trigger the automated security
response workflows associated with security alarms.
"The Filter Match option defines the logic used when multiple filters are defined. If 'All' is selected,
then all filter criteria must be met in order for the trigger to fire and a Security Event to be
generated. If the criteria are not met, the incoming data is processed as a normal event. If 'Any' is
selected, the trigger fires if at least one of the filters matches." ” FortiNAC-F Administration Guide:
Security Triggers Section.

QUESTION 2
When configuring isolation networks in the configuration wizard, why does a layer 3 network typo
allow for mora than ono DHCP scope for each isolation network typo?

A. The layer 3 network type allows for one scope for each possible host status.
B. Configuring more than one DHCP scope allows for DHCP server redundancy
C. There can be more than one isolation network of each type
D. Any scopes beyond the first scope are used if the initial scope runs out of IP addresses.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In FortiNAC-F, the Layer 3 Network type is specifically designed for deployments where the isolation
networks”such as Registration, Remediation, and Dead End”are separated from the FortiNAC
appliance's service interface (port2) by one or more routers. This architecture is common in large,
distributed enterprise environments where endpoints in different physical locations or branches
must be isolated into subnets that are local to their respective network equipment.
The reason the Configuration Wizard allows for more than one DHCP scope for a single isolation
network type (state) is that there can be more than one isolation network of each type across the
infrastructure. For instance, if an organization has three different sites, each site might require its
own unique Layer 3 registration subnet to ensure efficient routing and to accommodate local IP
address management. By allowing multiple scopes for the "Registration" state, FortiNAC can provide
the appropriate IP address, gateway, and DNS settings to a rogue host regardless of which site's
registration VLAN it is placed into.
When an endpoint is isolated, the network infrastructure (via DHCP Relay/IP Helper) directs the
DHCP request to the FortiNAC service interface. FortiNAC then identifies which scope to use based
on the incoming request's gateway information. This flexibility ensures that the system is not limited
to a single flat subnet for each isolation state, supporting a scalable, multi-routed network topology.
"Multiple scopes are allowed for each isolation state (Registration, Remediation, Dead End, VPN,
Authentication, Isolation, and Access Point Management). Within these scopes, multiple ranges in
the lease pool are also permitted... This configWizard option is used when Isolation Networks are
separated from the FortiNAC Appliance's port2 interface by a router." ” FortiNAC-F Configuration
Wizard Reference Manual: Layer 3 Network Section.

QUESTION 3
When FortiNAC-F is managing VPN clients connecting through FortiGate, why must the clients run a FortiNAC-F agent?

A. To transparently update The client IP address upon successful authentication
B. To collect user authentication details
C. To collect the client IP address and MAC address
D. To validate the endpoint policy compliance

Answer: C

Explanation:
When FortiNAC-F manages VPN clients through a FortiGate, the agent plays a fundamental role in
device identification that standard network protocols cannot provide on their own. In a standard VPN
connection, the FortiGate establishes a Layer 3 tunnel and assigns a virtual IP address to the client.
While the FortiGate sends a syslog message to FortiNAC-F containing the username and this assigned
IP address, it typically does not provide the hardware (MAC) address of the remote endpoint's
physical or virtual adapter.
FortiNAC-F relies on the MAC address as the primary unique identifier for all host records in its
database. Without the MAC address, FortiNAC-F cannot correlate the incoming VPN session with an
existing host record to apply specific policies or track the device's history. By running either a
Persistent or Dissolvable Agent, the endpoint retrieves its own MAC address and communicates it
directly to the FortiNAC-F service interface. This allows the "IP to MAC" mapping to occur. Once
FortiNAC-F has both the IP and the MAC, it can successfully identify the device, verify its status, and
send the appropriate FSSO tags or group information back to the FortiGate to lift network restrictions.
Furthermore, while the agent can also perform compliance checks (Option D), the architectural
requirement for the agent in a managed VPN environment is primarily driven by the need for session
data correlation”specifically the collection of the IP and MAC address pairing.
"Session Data Components: User ID (collected via RADIUS, syslog and API from the FortiGate).
Remote IP address for the remote user connection (collected via syslog and API from the FortiGate
and from the FortiNAC agent). Device IP and MAC address (collected via FortiNAC agent). ... The
Agent is used to provide the MAC address of the connecting VPN user (IP to MAC)." ” FortiNAC-F
FortiGate VPN Integration Guide: How it Works Section.

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibits.
What would happen if the highlighted port with connected hosts was placed in both the Forced
Registration and Forced Remediation port groups?

A. Both types of enforcement would be applied
B. Enforcement would be applied only to rogue hosts
C. Multiple enforcement groups could not contain the same port.
D. Only the higher ranked enforcement group would be applied.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In FortiNAC-F, Port Groups are used to apply specific enforcement behaviors to switch ports. When a
port is assigned to an enforcement group, such as Forced Registration or Forced Remediation,
FortiNAC-F overrides normal policy logic to force all connected adapters into that specific state. The
exhibit shows a port (IF#13) with "Multiple Hosts" connected, which is a common scenario in
environments using unmanaged switches or hubs downstream from a managed switch port.
According to the FortiNAC-F Administrator Guide, it is possible for a single port to be a member of
multiple port groups. However, when those groups have conflicting enforcement actions”such as
one group forcing a registration state and another forcing a remediation state”FortiNAC-F utilizes a
ranking system to resolve the conflict. In the FortiNAC-F GUI under Network > Port Management >
Port Groups, each group is assigned a rank. The system evaluates these ranks, and only the higher
ranked enforcement group is applied to the port. If a port is in both a Forced Registration group and a
Forced Remediation group, the group with the numerical priority (rank) will dictate the VLAN and
access level assigned to all hosts on that port.
This mechanism ensures consistent behavior across the fabric. If the ranking determines that "Forced
Registration" is higher priority, then even a known host that is failing a compliance scan (which
would normally trigger Remediation) will be held in the Registration VLAN because the port-level
enforcement takes precedence based on its rank.
"A port can be a member of multiple groups. If more than one group has an enforcement assigned,
the group with the highest rank (lowest numerical value) is used to determine the enforcement for
the port. When a port is placed in a group with an enforcement, that enforcement is applied to all
hosts connected to that port, regardless of the host's current state." ” FortiNAC-F Administration
Guide: Port Group Enforcement and Ranking.

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to build a security rule that will quarantine contractors who attempt to access specific websites.
In addition to a user host profile, which Iwo components must the administrator configure to create the security rule? (Choose two.)

A. Methods
B. Action
C. Endpoint compliance policy
D. Trigger
E. Security String

Answer: B, D

Explanation:
In FortiNAC-F, the Security Incidents engine is used to automate responses to security threats
reported by external devices. When an administrator wants to enforce a policy, such as quarantining
contractors who access restricted websites, they must create a Security Rule. A Security Rule acts as
the "if-then" logic that correlates incoming security data with the internal host database.
The documentation specifies that a Security Rule consists of three primary configurable components:
User/Host Profile: This identifies who or what the rule applies to (in this case, "Contractors").
Trigger: This is the event that initiates the rule evaluation. In this scenario, the Trigger would be
configured to match specific syslog messages or NetFlow data indicating access to prohibited
websites. Triggers use filters to match vendor-specific data, such as a "Web Filter" event from a

Databricks-Generative-AI-Engineer-Associate-Exam-Update-2026

 

Assessment Details
Type: Proctored certification
Total number of scored questions: 45
Time limit: 90 minutes
Registration fee: $200
Question types: Multiple choice
Test aides: None allowed
Languages: English, 日本語, Português BR, 한국어
Delivery Method: Online or test center
Prerequisites: None, but related training highly recommended
Recommended experience: 6+ months of hands-on experience performing the generative AI solutions tasks outlined in the exam guide
Validity period: 2 years

Recertification:
Recertification is required every two years to maintain your certified status. To recertify, you must take the current version of the exam. Please review the “Getting Ready for the Exam” section below to prepare for your recertification exam.

Unscored Content: Exams may include unscored items to gather statistical information for future use. These items are not identified on the form and do not impact your score. If unscored items are present on the exam, the actual number of items delivered will be higher than the total stated above. Additional time is factored into account for this content.

Databricks Certified Generative AI Engineer Associate

The Databricks Certified Generative AI Engineer Associate certification exam assesses an individual’s ability to design and implement LLM-enabled solutions using Databricks. This includes problem decomposition to break down complex requirements into manageable tasks as well as choosing appropriate models, tools and approaches from the current generative AI landscape for developing comprehensive solutions. It also assesses Databricks-specific tools such as Vector Search for semantic similarity searches, Model Serving for deploying models and solutions, MLflow for managing a solution lifecycle, and Unity Catalog for data governance. Individuals who pass this exam can be expected to build and deploy performant RAG applications and LLM chains that take full advantage of Databricks and its toolset.

The exam covers:
Design Applications – 14%
Data Preparation – 14%
Application Development – 30%
Assembling and Deploying Apps – 22%
Governance – 8%
Evaluation and Monitoring – 12%

Related Training
Instructor-led: Generative AI Engineering With Databricks
Self-paced (available in Databricks Academy): Generative AI Engineering with Databricks. This self-paced course will soon be replaced with the following four modules.
Generative AI Solution Development (RAG)
Generative AI Application Development (Agents)
Generative AI Application Evaluation and Governance
Generative AI Application Deployment and Monitoring

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
A Generative Al Engineer has created a RAG application to look up answers to questions about a
series of fantasy novels that are being asked on the author's web forum. The fantasy novel texts are
chunked and embedded into a vector store with metadata (page number, chapter number, book
title), retrieved with the user's query, and provided to an LLM for response generation. The
Generative AI Engineer used their intuition to pick the chunking strategy and associated
configurations but now wants to more methodically choose the best values.
Which TWO strategies should the Generative AI Engineer take to optimize their chunking strategy
and parameters? (Choose two.)

A. Change embedding models and compare performance.
B. Add a classifier for user queries that predicts which book will best contain the answer. Use this to filter retrieval.
C. Choose an appropriate evaluation metric (such as recall or NDCG) and experiment with changes in
the chunking strategy, such as splitting chunks by paragraphs or chapters.
Choose the strategy that gives the best performance metric.
D. Pass known questions and best answers to an LLM and instruct the LLM to provide the best token
count. Use a summary statistic (mean, median, etc.) of the best token counts to choose chunk size.
E. Create an LLM-as-a-judge metric to evaluate how well previous questions are answered by the
most appropriate chunk. Optimize the chunking parameters based upon the values of the metric.

Answer: C, E

Explanation:
To optimize a chunking strategy for a Retrieval-Augmented Generation (RAG) application, the
Generative AI Engineer needs a structured approach to evaluating the chunking strategy, ensuring
that the chosen configuration retrieves the most relevant information and leads to accurate and
coherent LLM responses. Here's why C and E are the correct strategies:
Strategy C: Evaluation Metrics (Recall, NDCG)
Define an evaluation metric: Common evaluation metrics such as recall, precision, or NDCG
(Normalized Discounted Cumulative Gain) measure how well the retrieved chunks match the user's
query and the expected response.
Recall measures the proportion of relevant information retrieved.
NDCG is often used when you want to account for both the relevance of retrieved chunks and the
ranking or order in which they are retrieved.
Experiment with chunking strategies: Adjusting chunking strategies based on text structure (e.g.,
splitting by paragraph, chapter, or a fixed number of tokens) allows the engineer to experiment with
various ways of slicing the text. Some chunks may better align with the user's query than others.
Evaluate performance: By using recall or NDCG, the engineer can methodically test various chunking
strategies to identify which one yields the highest performance. This ensures that the chunking
method provides the most relevant information when embedding and retrieving data from the
vector store.
Strategy E: LLM-as-a-Judge Metric
Use the LLM as an evaluator: After retrieving chunks, the LLM can be used to evaluate the quality of
answers based on the chunks provided. This could be framed as a "judge" function, where the LLM
compares how well a given chunk answers previous user queries.
Optimize based on the LLM's judgment: By having the LLM assess previous answers and rate their
relevance and accuracy, the engineer can collect feedback on how well different chunking
configurations perform in real-world scenarios.
This metric could be a qualitative judgment on how closely the retrieved information matches the
user's intent.
Tune chunking parameters: Based on the LLM's judgment, the engineer can adjust the chunk size or
structure to better align with the LLM's responses, optimizing retrieval for future queries.
By combining these two approaches, the engineer ensures that the chunking strategy is
systematically evaluated using both quantitative (recall/NDCG) and qualitative (LLM judgment)
methods. This balanced optimization process results in improved retrieval relevance and,
consequently, better response generation by the LLM.

QUESTION 2
A Generative AI Engineer is designing a RAG application for answering user questions on technical
regulations as they learn a new sport.
What are the steps needed to build this RAG application and deploy it?

A. Ingest documents from a source "> Index the documents and saves to Vector Search "> User
submits queries against an LLM "> LLM retrieves relevant documents "> Evaluate model "> LLM
generates a response "> Deploy it using Model Serving
B. Ingest documents from a source "> Index the documents and save to Vector Search "> User
submits queries against an LLM "> LLM retrieves relevant documents "> LLM generates a response ->
Evaluate model "> Deploy it using Model Serving
C. Ingest documents from a source "> Index the documents and save to Vector Search "> Evaluate
model "> Deploy it using Model Serving
D. User submits queries against an LLM "> Ingest documents from a source "> Index the documents
and save to Vector Search "> LLM retrieves relevant documents "> LLM generates a response ">
Evaluate model "> Deploy it using Model Serving

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Generative AI Engineer needs to follow a methodical pipeline to build and deploy a Retrieval-
Augmented Generation (RAG) application. The steps outlined in option B accurately reflect this process:
Ingest documents from a source: This is the first step, where the engineer collects documents (e.g.,
technical regulations) that will be used for retrieval when the application answers user questions.
Index the documents and save to Vector Search: Once the documents are ingested, they need to be
embedded using a technique like embeddings (e.g., with a pre-trained model like BERT) and stored
in a vector database (such as Pinecone or FAISS). This enables fast retrieval based on user queries.
User submits queries against an LLM: Users interact with the application by submitting their queries.
These queries will be passed to the LLM.
LLM retrieves relevant documents: The LLM works with the vector store to retrieve the most relevant
documents based on their vector representations.
LLM generates a response: Using the retrieved documents, the LLM generates a response that is
tailored to the user's question.
Evaluate model: After generating responses, the system must be evaluated to ensure the retrieved
documents are relevant and the generated response is accurate. Metrics such as accuracy, relevance,
and user satisfaction can be used for evaluation.
Deploy it using Model Serving: Once the RAG pipeline is ready and evaluated, it is deployed using a
model-serving platform such as Databricks Model Serving. This enables real-time inference and
response generation for users.
By following these steps, the Generative AI Engineer ensures that the RAG application is both
efficient and effective for the task of answering technical regulation questions.

QUESTION 3
A Generative AI Engineer just deployed an LLM application at a digital marketing company that
assists with answering customer service inquiries.
Which metric should they monitor for their customer service LLM application in production?

A. Number of customer inquiries processed per unit of time
B. Energy usage per query
C. Final perplexity scores for the training of the model
D. HuggingFace Leaderboard values for the base LLM

Answer: A

Explanation:
When deploying an LLM application for customer service inquiries, the primary focus is on measuring
the operational efficiency and quality of the responses. Here's why A is the correct metric:
Number of customer inquiries processed per unit of time: This metric tracks the throughput of the
customer service system, reflecting how many customer inquiries the LLM application can handle in
a given time period (e.g., per minute or hour). High throughput is crucial in customer service
applications where quick response times are essential to user satisfaction and business efficiency.
Real-time performance monitoring: Monitoring the number of queries processed is an important
part of ensuring that the model is performing well under load, especially during peak traffic times. It
also helps ensure the system scales properly to meet demand.
Why other options are not ideal:
B . Energy usage per query: While energy efficiency is a consideration, it is not the primary concern
for a customer-facing application where user experience (i.e., fast and accurate responses) is critical.
C . Final perplexity scores for the training of the model: Perplexity is a metric for model training, but
it doesn't reflect the real-time operational performance of an LLM in production.
D . HuggingFace Leaderboard values for the base LLM: The HuggingFace Leaderboard is more
relevant during model selection and benchmarking. However, it is not a direct measure of the
model's performance in a specific customer service application in production.
Focusing on throughput (inquiries processed per unit time) ensures that the LLM application is
meeting business needs for fast and efficient customer service responses.

QUESTION 4
A Generative AI Engineer is building a Generative AI system that suggests the best matched
employee team member to newly scoped projects. The team member is selected from a very large
team. The match should be based upon project date availability and how well their employee profile
matches the project scope. Both the employee profile and project scope are unstructured text.
How should the Generative Al Engineer architect their system?

A. Create a tool for finding available team members given project dates. Embed all project scopes
into a vector store, perform a retrieval using team member profiles to find the best team member.
B. Create a tool for finding team member availability given project dates, and another tool that uses
an LLM to extract keywords from project scopes. Iterate through available team members' profiles
and perform keyword matching to find the best available team member.
C. Create a tool to find available team members given project dates. Create a second tool that can
calculate a similarity score for a combination of team member profile and the project scope. Iterate
through the team members and rank by best score to select a team member.
D. Create a tool for finding available team members given project dates. Embed team profiles into a
vector store and use the project scope and filtering to perform retrieval to find the available best
matched team members.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Problem Context: The problem involves matching team members to new projects based on two main factors:
Availability: Ensure the team members are available during the project dates.
Profile-Project Match: Use the employee profiles (unstructured text) to find the best match for a
project's scope (also unstructured text).
The two main inputs are the employee profiles and project scopes, both of which are unstructured.
This means traditional rule-based systems (e.g., simple keyword matching) would be inefficient,
especially when working with large datasets.
Explanation of Options: Let's break down the provided options to understand why D is the most
optimal answer.
Option A suggests embedding project scopes into a vector store and then performing retrieval using
team member profiles. While embedding project scopes into a vector store is a valid technique, it
skips an important detail: the focus should primarily be on embedding employee profiles because
we're matching the profiles to a new project, not the other way around.
Option B involves using a large language model (LLM) to extract keywords from the project scope and
perform keyword matching on employee profiles. While LLMs can help with keyword extraction, this
approach is too simplistic and doesn't leverage advanced retrieval techniques like vector
embeddings, which can handle the nuanced and rich semantics of unstructured data. This approach
may miss out on subtle but important similarities.
Option C suggests calculating a similarity score between each team member's profile and project
scope. While this is a good idea, it doesn't specify how to handle the unstructured nature of data
efficiently. Iterating through each member's profile individually could be computationally expensive
in large teams. It also lacks the mention of using a vector store or an efficient retrieval mechanism.
Option D is the correct approach. Here's why:
Embedding team profiles into a vector store: Using a vector store allows for efficient similarity
searches on unstructured data. Embedding the team member profiles into vectors captures their
semantics in a way that is far more flexible than keyword-based matching.
Using project scope for retrieval: Instead of matching keywords, this approach suggests using vector
embeddings and similarity search algorithms (e.g., cosine similarity) to find the team members
whose profiles most closely align with the project scope.
Filtering based on availability: Once the best-matched candidates are retrieved based on profile
similarity, filtering them by availability ensures that the system provides a practically useful result.
This method efficiently handles large-scale datasets by leveraging vector embeddings and similarity
search techniques, both of which are fundamental tools in Generative AI engineering for handling
unstructured text.
Technical References:
Vector embeddings: In this approach, the unstructured text (employee profiles and project scopes) is
converted into high-dimensional vectors using pretrained models (e.g., BERT, Sentence-BERT, or
custom embeddings). These embeddings capture the semantic meaning of the text, making it easier
to perform similarity-based retrieval.
Vector stores: Solutions like FAISS or Milvus allow storing and retrieving large numbers of vector
embeddings quickly. This is critical when working with large teams where querying through
individual profiles sequentially would be inefficient.
LLM Integration: Large language models can assist in generating embeddings for both employee
profiles and project scopes. They can also assist in fine-tuning similarity measures, ensuring that the
retrieval system captures the nuances of the text data.
Filtering: After retrieving the most similar profiles based on the project scope, filtering based on
availability ensures that only team members who are free for the project are considered.
This system is scalable, efficient, and makes use of the latest techniques in Generative AI, such as
vector embeddings and semantic search.

QUESTION 5
A Generative AI Engineer is designing an LLM-powered live sports commentary platform.
he platform provides real-time updates and LLM-generated analyses for any users who would like to
have live summaries, rather than reading a series of potentially outdated news articles.
Which tool below will give the platform access to real-time data for generating game analyses based on the latest game scores?

A. DatabrickslQ
B. Foundation Model APIs
C. Feature Serving
D. AutoML

Answer: C

Explanation:
Problem Context: The engineer is developing an LLM-powered live sports commentary platform that
needs to provide real-time updates and analyses based on the latest game scores. The critical
requirement here is the capability to access and integrate real-time data efficiently with the platform
for immediate analysis and reporting.
Explanation of Options:
Option A: DatabricksIQ: While DatabricksIQ offers integration and data processing capabilities, it is
more aligned with data analytics rather than real-time feature serving, which is crucial for immediate
updates necessary in a live sports commentary context.
Option B: Foundation Model APIs: These APIs facilitate interactions with pre-trained models and
could be part of the solution, but on their own, they do not provide mechanisms to access real-time game scores.
Option C: Feature Serving: This is the correct answer as feature serving specifically refers to the realtime
provision of data (features) to models for prediction. This would be essential for an LLM that
generates analyses based on live game data, ensuring that the commentary is current and based on
the latest events in the sport.
Option D: AutoML: This tool automates the process of applying machine learning models to realworld
problems, but it does not directly provide real-time data access, which is a critical requirement
for the platform.
Thus, Option C (Feature Serving) is the most suitable tool for the platform as it directly supports the
real-time data needs of an LLM-powered sports commentary system, ensuring that the analyses and
updates are based on the latest available information.

JN0-253 Juniper Mist AI Certification Exam

 

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code  JN0-253
Prerequisite Certification
Exam Length  90 minutes
Exam Type 65 multiple-choice questions

Exam Objectives
Here is a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIA-MistAI certification exam.

Exam Objective

Juniper Mist Cloud Fundamentals

Identify fundamental concepts about the Juniper Mist cloud-native architecture, including:
AI concepts
Machine learning
Benefits of using cloud-based management
Juniper Mist cloud capabilities and use cases

Identify the concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist cloud accounts, including:
Creation and management of user accounts
Capabilities of different account roles
Juniper Mist Cloud user/account authentication methods

Describe the concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist initial configurations, including:
Factory default configurations and network connection prerequisites
Device claiming and onboarding
Creation and management of Juniper Mist organizations and sites
Template usage
Labels and policies

Identify the concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist advanced configurations, including:
Subscriptions (Licensing)
Certificates (Radsec, Mist)
Auto provisioning

Juniper Mist Network Operations and Management
Identify concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist wireless network management and operations features:

Benefits and features of Juniper Mist Wi-Fi Assurance
Identify concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist wired network management and operations features:
Benefits and features of Juniper Mist Wired Assurance
Benefits and features of Juniper Mist WAN Assurance
Benefits and features of Juniper Mist Routing Assurance

Identify concepts or functionality of Juniper Mist network access management and features:
Benefits and features of Juniper Mist Access Assurance

Juniper Mist Monitoring and Analytics
Identify the concepts or components of Juniper Mist AI insights, monitoring, and analytics, including:
Service-level expectations (SLEs)
Packet captures
Juniper Mist insights
Alerts
Audit logs

Marvis™ Virtual Network Assistant AI
Identify the concepts or functionality of Marvis Virtual Network Assistant, including:
Marvis actions (organization level, site level)
Marvis queries
Marvis Minis

Location-based Services
Identify the concepts or components of Location-based Services (LBS), including:
Juniper Mist vBLE concepts (such as asset visibility, vBLE engagement)

Juniper Mist Cloud Operations
Identify the concepts or components of Juniper Mist APIs
RESTful
Websocket
Webhook

Identify the options of Juniper Mist support
Support tickets
Update information
Documentation

Key Details:
Exam Code: JN0-253
Certification: JNCIA-MistAI (Juniper Mist AI, Associate)
Focus Areas: Juniper Mist Cloud architecture, WLAN setup, AI-driven features (Marvis), API usage, and network operations.
Question Format: 65 multiple-choice questions (some sources mention scenario-based/drag-and-drop too).
Duration: 90 minutes.
Delivery: Pearson VUE (online proctored or test center).
Language: English only.
Prerequisites: None.
Results: Immediate pass/fail.

What it Covers (Domains):
Juniper Mist Cloud Fundamentals: Architecture, APIs, scalability.
Juniper Mist Configuration Basics: Site, WLAN, SSID setup, policies.
Juniper Mist Network Operations: Firmware, templates, daily tasks.
Mist AI Features: Marvis Virtual Network Assistant, analytics, location services.

This exam validates your ability to use Juniper's AI-driven cloud for managing modern Wi-Fi networks.

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
What are two ways that Juniper Mist Access Assurance enforces network access control? (Choose two.)

A. It creates a VPN using an IPsec tunnel.
B. It monitors network traffic.
C. It assigns specific roles to users.
D. It groups users into network segments.

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
Juniper Mist Access Assurance is a cloud-based network access control service that provides secure
wired and wireless access through identity- and policy-based mechanisms. According to the official
Juniper Mist AI documentation, Access Assurance uses user and device identity to determine
network access privileges dynamically.
The service enforces access policies primarily in two ways:
Assigning Specific Roles to Users:
Access Assurance dynamically assigns roles to users and devices after successful authentication.
These roles are used to apply specific network policies and permissions, defining what level of access
or network resources a user or device is allowed. Roles can be leveraged in wireless SSID
configurations or switch access policies to ensure consistent enforcement across the infrastructure.
Grouping Users into Network Segments:
Access Assurance also allows grouping of users and devices into network segments using VLANs or
Group-Based Policy (GBP) technology. This segmentation isolates users or devices into logical groups,
ensuring security and optimized traffic handling. Policies are then applied to these groups to control
communication between segments, thereby maintaining a zero-trust framework.
Options A and B are incorrect because Access Assurance does not establish VPN tunnels or passively
monitor traffic as its primary method of access control. It relies instead on identity-based role
assignment and segmentation to enforce network security.
Reference:
“ Juniper Mist Access Assurance Data Sheet
“ Juniper Mist Access Assurance Getting Started Guide
“ Juniper Mist AI Cloud Documentation

QUESTION 2
Which statement is correct about the relationship between Juniper Mist organizations and sites?

A. A Juniper Mist superuser login grants access to all organizations.
B. One Juniper Mist organization can contain multiple sites.
C. You must have one Juniper Mist superuser login for each site.
D. One Juniper Mist site can contain multiple organizations.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the official Juniper Mist documentation on the configuration hierarchy, the platform
uses a three-tier model: Organization → Site → Device. At the organization level, you manage
administrator accounts, subscriptions, and organization-wide settings. Then:
oeAn organization can include one or more sites. A site can represent a physical location or a logical
subdivision of your enterprise or campus.
Also, in the simpler case explanation:
oeEach customer is created as a separate organization. Within that organization multiple sites can be created.
Mist
These statements make clear that the correct relationship is: one organization may have multiple
sites under it. The inverse ” that a site might contain multiple organizations ” is not supported in
the documented hierarchy. Therefore option B is correct.

QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
Referring to the exhibit, which Roaming Classifier is responsible for the sub-threshold SLEs?

A. Signal Quality
B. WiFi Interference
C. Ethernet
D. Capacity

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the Juniper Mist dashboard, Service Level Expectations (SLEs) are metrics that measure user
experience in key areas such as connection, throughput, and roaming. Each SLE is composed of
classifiers, which help identify the underlying cause of degraded performance or sub-threshold scores.
According to the Juniper Mist AI documentation, the Roaming SLE tracks client transitions between
access points and evaluates the quality of those roaming events. The contributing classifiers typically
include Signal Quality, Wi-Fi Interference, Ethernet, and Capacity.
In this exhibit, the bar for Capacity is the longest under the oeRoaming Classifiers section, indicating
that it has the most significant impact on the Sub-Threshold SLE value (10.6%). This means roaming
performance is primarily being limited by insufficient capacity ” often due to AP radio congestion or
a high number of concurrent clients impacting handoff efficiency.
Hence, the Capacity classifier is responsible for the sub-threshold SLEs.
Reference:
“ Juniper Mist AI Service Level Expectations (SLE) Overview
“ Juniper Mist Dashboard Analytics and SLE Classifiers Guide
“ Juniper Mist Wi-Fi Assurance Documentation

QUESTION 4
How do Wireless Assurance SLEs help administrators troubleshoot?

A. They help streamline the onboarding process.
B. They manage Juniper Mist subscriptions.
C. They customize the Guest User portal.
D. They set benchmarks for network performance and user experiences.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Juniper Mist AI, Wireless Assurance Service Level Expectations (SLEs) are designed to provide AIdriven
visibility into user experience and network performance. Each SLE represents a specific aspect
of the end-user journey ” such as Time to Connect, Throughput, Coverage, Roaming, Capacity, and
Application Experience.
According to the Juniper Mist documentation, SLEs oedefine measurable benchmarks for user
experience and identify where deviations occur. This allows administrators to quickly determine
whether issues stem from client devices, access points, wired uplinks, or WAN connectivity. When an
SLE metric falls below its threshold, Mist AI automatically highlights the affected classifier (for
example, DHCP, DNS, or Wi-Fi interference) and provides root-cause correlation through AI-driven
insights.
This data-driven approach enables administrators to troubleshoot proactively by focusing on userimpacting
areas instead of raw device statistics. Thus, Wireless Assurance SLEs act as experiencebased
benchmarks that simplify troubleshooting, improve performance visibility, and shorten mean
time to repair (MTTR).
Reference:
“ Juniper Mist Wireless Assurance and SLEs Overview
“ Juniper Mist AI Operations and Analytics Guide
“ Juniper Mist Cloud Documentation on Service Level Expectations

QUESTION 5
You are asked to create a real-time visualization dashboard which displays clients on a map.
Which two Juniper Mist functions would you use in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. Webhooks
B. RESTful API
C. WebSocket

D. Live View

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
When developing a real-time visualization dashboard that displays client locations on a map, Juniper
Mist offers specific APIs and data streaming methods to support dynamic updates.
According to the Juniper Mist Developer Documentation, the WebSocket interface enables
continuous, real-time streaming of client location and telemetry data directly from the Mist Cloud.
This mechanism is ideal for live dashboards, as it eliminates the need for repeated REST API polling.
WebSocket connections provide instant updates whenever a device moves, connects, or disconnects,
ensuring the displayed map remains accurate in real time.
The Live View feature complements this functionality within the Mist Cloud and third-party
integrations. It allows administrators and developers to view live location movements of Wi-Fi
clients, BLE beacons, and IoT devices within a sites floor plan. It uses telemetry directly from access
points, offering second-by-second updates.
In contrast, RESTful APIs and Webhooks are designed for event-based automation and configuration
management rather than live visualization. REST APIs are best for historical or static data retrieval,
while Webhooks are used for triggering external actions based on events.
Therefore, the correct functions for real-time map visualization are:
WebSocket (C) ” for continuous live data streaming
Live View (D) ” for direct map-based visualization of client activity
Reference:
“ Juniper Mist Developer API and WebSocket Guide
“ Juniper Mist Location Services and Live View Documentation
“ Juniper Mist Cloud Architecture Overview

 

NSE5_SSE_AD-7.6 Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSASE and SD-WAN 7.6 Core Administrator Exam

 

NSE5_SSE_AD-7.6 Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSASE and SD-WAN 7.6 Core Administrator Exam

The NSE5_SSE_AD-7.6 exam, "Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSASE and SD-WAN 7.6 Core Administrator,"
tests deploying and managing FortiSASE & Secure SD-WAN, covering topics like SD-WAN setup, SASE integration, and secure internet/SaaS access, featuring 30-35 questions in 65 minutes, scored Pass/Fail via Pearson VUE.

This video provides a brief overview of the NSE 5 FortiAnalyzer certification:

Key Details
Exam Name: Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSASE and SD-WAN 7.6 Core Administrator.
Exam Code: NSE5_SSE_AD-7.6.
Focus: Practical knowledge of FortiSASE and Secure SD-WAN configuration, operations, integration, and troubleshooting.
Audience: Network/security pros managing FortiSASE/SD-WAN solutions.
Format: 30-35 questions.
Duration: 65 minutes.
Scoring: Pass/Fail.
Provider: Pearson VUE.

Topics Covered (Exam Objectives)
Decentralized SD-WAN: Basic setup, members/zones, SLA rules, routing.
SASE Deployment: Admin settings, user onboarding, SD-WAN integration.
Security: Secure Internet Access (SIA) & Secure SaaS Access (SSA).
Operations: Incident analysis, troubleshooting scenarios.

How to Prepare
Recommended Training: FortiSASE Core Administrator.
Practice: Use sample questions and practice tests for scenario-based questions and difficulty assessment.
Study Materials: Leverage Fortinet's official resources and third-party practice exams (like those from NWExam and P2PExams, but always verify against official Fortinet guides).

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:

Decentralized SD-WAN
Implement a basic SD-WAN setup
Configure SD-WAN members and zones
Configure performance service-level agreements (SLA)

Rules and routing
Configure SD-WAN rules
Configure SD-WAN routing

SASE deployment
Configure SASE administration settings
Use available user onboarding methods
Integrate FortiSASE with SD-WAN

Secure internet access (SIA) and secure SaaS access (SSA)
Implement security profiles to perform content inspection
Deploy compliance rules to managed endpoints

Analytics
Analyze SD-WAN logs to monitor rule and session behavior
Identify potential security threats using FortiSASE logs
Analyze reports for user traffic and security issues

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
SD-WAN interacts with many other FortiGate features. Some of them are required to allow SD-WAN to steer the traffic.
Which three configuration elements must you configure before FortiGate can steer traffic according to SD-WAN rules? (Choose three.)

A. Firewall policies
B. Security profiles
C. Interfaces
D. Routing
E. Traffic shaping

Answer: A, C, D

Explanation:
According to the SD-WAN 7.6 Core Administrator study guide and the FortiOS 7.6 Administration
Guide, for the FortiGate SD-WAN engine to successfully steer traffic using SD-WAN rules, three
fundamental configuration components must be in place. This is because the SD-WAN rule lookup
occurs only after certain initial conditions are met in the packet flow:
Interfaces (Option C): You must first define the physical or logical interfaces (such as ISP links, LTE, or
VPN tunnels) as SD-WAN members. These members are then typically grouped into SD-WAN Zones.
Without designated member interfaces, there is no "pool" of links for the SD-WAN rules to select from.
Routing (Option D): For a packet to even be considered by the SD-WAN engine, there must be a
matching route in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB). Usually, this is a static route where the
destination is the network you want to reach, and the gateway interface is set to the SD-WAN virtual
interface (or a specific SD-WAN zone). If there is no route pointing to SD-WAN, the FortiGate will use
other routing table entries (like a standard static route) and bypass the SD-WAN rule-based steering logic entirely.
Firewall Policies (Option A): In FortiOS, no traffic is allowed to pass through the device unless a
Firewall Policy permits it. To steer traffic, you must have a policy where the Incoming Interface is the
internal network and the Outgoing Interface is the SD-WAN zone (or the virtual-wan-link). The SDWAN
rule selection happens during the "Dirty" session state, which requires a policy match to
proceed with the session creation.
Why other options are incorrect:
Security Profiles (Option B): While mandatory for Application-level steering (to identify L7
signatures), basic SD-WAN steering based on IP addresses, ports, or ISDB objects does not require
security profiles to be active.
Traffic Shaping (Option E): This is an optimization feature used to manage bandwidth once steering is
already determined; it is not a prerequisite for the steering engine itself to function.

QUESTION 2
The IT team is wondering whether they will need to continue using MDM tools for future FortiClient upgrades.
What options are available for handling future FortiClient upgrades?

A. Enable the Endpoint Upgrade feature on the FortiSASE portal.
B. FortiClient will need to be manually upgraded.
C. Perform onboarding for managed endpoint users with a newer FortiClient version.
D. A newer FortiClient version will be auto-upgraded on demand.

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the FortiSASE 7.6 Feature Administration Guide and the latest updates to the NSE 5
SASE curriculum, FortiSASE has introduced native lifecycle management for FortiClient agents to
reduce the operational burden on IT teams who previously relied solely on third-party MDM (Mobile
Device Management) or GPO (Group Policy Objects) for every update.
The Endpoint Upgrade feature, found under System > Endpoint Upgrade in the FortiSASE portal,
allows administrators to perform the following:
Centralized Version Control: Administrators can see which versions are currently deployed and which
"Recommended" versions are available from FortiGuard.
Scheduled Rollouts: You can choose to upgrade all endpoints or specific endpoint groups at a
designated time, ensuring that upgrades do not disrupt business operations.
Status Monitoring: The portal provides a real-time dashboard showing the progress of the upgrade
(e.g., Downloading, Installing, Reboot Pending, or Success).
Manual vs. Managed: While MDM is still highly recommended for the initial onboarding (the first
time FortiClient is installed and connected to the SASE cloud), all subsequent upgrades can be
handled natively by the FortiSASE portal.
Why other options are incorrect:
Option B: Manual upgrades are inefficient for large-scale deployments (~400 users in this scenario)
and are not the intended "feature-rich" solution provided by FortiSASE.
Option C: "Onboarding" refers to the initial setup. Re-onboarding every time a version changes
would be redundant and counterproductive.
Option D: While the system can manage the upgrade, it is not "auto-upgraded on demand" by the
client itself without administrative configuration in the portal. The administrator must still define the
target version and schedule.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibit shows output of the command diagnose sys sdwan service collected on a FortiGate device.
The administrator wants to know through which interface FortiGate will steer traffic from local users
on subnet 10.0.1.0.255.255.192 and with a destination of the social media application Facebook.
Based on the exhibits, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGate steers traffic for social media applications according to the service rule 2 and steers traffic through port2.
B. There is no service defined for the Facebook application, so FortiGate applies service rule 3 and directs the traffic to headquarters.
C. When FortiGate cannot recognize the application of the flow, it load balances the traffic through the tunnels HQ_T1, HQ_T2, HQ_T3.
D. When FortiGate cannot recognize the application of the flow, it steers the traffic through the preferred member of rule 3, HQ_T1.

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
"If a flow is identified as belonging to a defined application category (such as social media), FortiGate
will match it to the corresponding service rule (rule 2) and route it through the specified interface,
such as port2. However, if the application is not recognized during the session setup, the system
defaults to load balancing the traffic using the available tunnels according to the policy for
unclassified traffic, ensuring continuous connectivity while waiting for application classification."
This guarantees both performance and resilience.

QUESTION 4
You have configured the performance SLA with the probe mode as Prefer Passive.
What are two observable impacts of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGate can offload the traffic that is subject to passive monitoring to hardware.
B. FortiGate passively monitors the member if ICMP traffic is passing through the member.
C. During passive monitoring, the SLA performance rule cannot detect dead members.
D. After FortiGate switches to active mode, the SLA performance rule falls back to passive monitoring after 3 minutes.
E. FortiGate passively monitors the member if TCP traffic is passing through the member.

Answer: C, E

Explanation:
In the SD-WAN 7.6 Core Administrator curriculum, the "Prefer Passive" probe mode is a hybrid
monitoring strategy designed to minimize the overhead of synthetic traffic (probes) while

Plat-Admn-201 Salesforce Certified Platform Administrator Exam

 

ABOUT THE EXAM
Certified Platform Administrators are Salesforce pros who are always looking for ways to help their companies get even more out of the Salesforce Platform through additional features and capabilities.

Key Exam Details
Name: Salesforce Certified Platform Administrator (Plat-Admn-201).
Format: 60 multiple-choice questions, 105 minutes.
Passing Score: 65% (39 correct answers).
Cost: $200 (plus tax); $100 retake fee.
Delivery: Can be taken at a test center or online with live proctoring.

What's Covered (Exam Topics)
Configuration & Setup: Company settings, UI, user management.
Object Manager & App Builder: Standard/custom objects, relationships, Lightning apps.
Sales & Marketing Apps: Sales processes, opportunity tools, automation.
Service & Support Apps: Case management, automation.
Productivity & Collaboration: Activity management, Chatter, Salesforce Mobile.

How to Prepare
Practice: Use a Salesforce Developer Org for hands-on tasks.
Trailhead: Complete the Admin Beginner and Intermediate trails.
Scenario-Based: Focus on real-world situations and problem-solving.

1. Configuration and Setup (High Weight)
Company Settings, User Management (Profiles, Permission Sets, Roles).
Security Settings (Login Access Policies, Password Policies, Network Access).

2. Object Manager and Lightning App Builder (High Weight)
Standard & Custom Objects, Fields, Relationships (Lookup, Master-Detail).
Page Layouts, Record Types, Lightning Record Pages, Component Visibility.
Lightning App Builder, Apps, Tabs, Home Pages.

3. Data Management & Analytics
Data Import/Export (Data Loader).
Data Validation, Duplicate Management.
Reports & Dashboards (Creating, Customizing, Sharing).

4. Workflow/Process Automation
Flows (Screen Flows, Record-Triggered Flows), Process Builder (legacy), Workflow Rules (legacy).
Approval Processes.

5. Sales and Marketing Applications
Lead Management, Opportunity Management, Campaigns.

6. Service and Support Applications
Case Management, Entitlements, Knowledge.

7. Productivity and Collaboration
Chatter, Activities (Tasks, Events), Email Templates, Global Actions.

Key Skills Tested:
Understanding of user security and access controls (Profiles, Roles, Sharing).
Ability to build and customize user interfaces using Lightning App Builder.
Knowledge of automation tools for business processes.
Proficiency in managing data within the platform.

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
Cloud Kicks wants a report to categorize accounts into small, medium, and large based on the dollar value found in the Contract Value field. Which feature should a Platform Administrator use to meet this request?

A. Group Rows
B. Filter Logic
C. Detail Column
D. Bucket Column

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Salesforce reporting, a Bucket Column is the most efficient tool for categorizing records without
the need for creating custom fields or complex formula logic. Bucketing allows an administrator to
define ranges of values for a field”such as the "Contract Value" currency field”and assign a label to
each range, such as "Small," "Medium," or "Large." This is particularly useful for grouping data into
segments that do not exist natively in the data model. For example, if a "Small" account is defined as
anything under $50,000 and "Large" is over $200,000, the bucket tool allows the admin to visually
organize these in the report builder interface. Unlike Grouping Rows, which merely clusters identical
values together, a Bucket Column transforms raw data into meaningful categories for visualization.
This feature significantly enhances data storytelling by providing a summarized view of account
distribution based on specific financial thresholds without impacting the actual Account record or
requiring administrative overhead for new fields.

QUESTION 2
Universal Containers wants to ensure that cases are routed to the right people at the right time, but
there is a growing support organization. The business wants to be able to move people around and
adjust the work they get without having to request extra assistance or rely on the administrator teams. Which tool allows the business to control its own assignment of work?

A. Case Assignment Rules
B. Email-to-Case
C. Omni-Channel
D. Lead Assignment Rules

Answer: C

Explanation:
Omni-Channel is a comprehensive service tool designed to route work items (like Cases, Leads, or
custom objects) to the most available and qualified support agents in real-time. Unlike Case
Assignment Rules, which are often static and require administrative intervention to update complex
logic, Omni-Channel allows for more dynamic management through the use of Queues and Presence
Statuses. By using Omni-Channel, a support manager or "Supervisor" can monitor agent workloads
and adjust capacity or move people between service channels without needing to modify the
underlying system configuration or involve the Platform Administrator. It supports various routing
models, such as "Least Active" or "Most Available," ensuring that work is distributed fairly and
efficiently. This flexibility is vital for growing organizations that need to scale their support operations
quickly while maintaining high service levels. Furthermore, it provides the business with the
autonomy to manage its workforce effectively, as managers can see who is logged in and what they
are working on, allowing for immediate adjustments to handle spikes in case volume.

QUESTION 3
Cloud Kicks is concerned that not everyone on the sales team is entering key data into accounts and
opportunities that they own. Also, the team is concerned that if the key information changes, it does
not get updated in Salesforce. A Platform Administrator wants to get a better understanding of their
data quality and record completeness. What should the administrator do to accomplish this?

A. Explore AppExchange for data quality and record completeness solutions.
B. Create a report for Accounts and Opportunities highlighting missing data.
C. Subscribe the sales reps to a monthly report for accounts and opportunities.
D. Configure the key fields as required fields on the page layout.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The administrator's goal is to gain a better understanding of current data quality and record
completeness issues in Accounts and Opportunities. Creating reports (or dashboards) that highlight
blank or missing key fields”using filters like "Field equals (blank)" or formula fields to flag
incompleteness”directly assesses the existing data by showing which records lack required information.
Why B is correct: Salesforce Trailhead modules on data quality emphasize using reports and
dashboards (e.g., Account, Contact & Opportunity Data Quality Dashboard) to identify missing fields and measure completeness before implementing fixes.
Why not the others:

A: Exploring AppExchange apps is useful for advanced or ongoing solutions but skips the initial assessment step.
C: Subscribing reps to reports helps with awareness but doesn't provide the admin with an overview of data quality.
D: Making fields required prevents future issues but doesn't reveal current missing data or outdated records.
This approach aligns with Salesforce best practices: assess data quality first through reporting, then enforce improvements.

QUESTION 4
Northern Trail Outfitters has two different sales processes: one for business opportunities with four
stages and one for partner opportunities with eight stages. Both processes will vary in page layouts
and picklist value options. What should a Platform Administrator configure to meet these requirements?

A. Different page layouts that control the picklist values for the opportunity types
B. Separate record types and sales processes for the different types of opportunities
C. Validation rules that ensure that users are entering accurate sales stage information
D. Public groups to limit record types and sales processes for opportunities

Answer: B

Explanation:
To manage different business requirements for a single object like Opportunities, Salesforce utilizes a
combination of Record Types and Sales Processes. A Sales Process is a specific feature for the
Opportunity object that allows an administrator to select which "Stage" picklist values are visible. In
this scenario, the admin would create one Sales Process for "Business" (4 stages) and another for
"Partner" (8 stages). Once these processes are defined, they are linked to Record Types. Record Types
are the engine that allows different users to see different Page Layouts and picklist options based on
the "type" of record they are creating. This architecture ensures that users working on Partner deals
are guided through the appropriate eight stages and see the relevant fields on their layout, while
Business users have a streamlined four-stage experience. This separation is critical for maintaining
data integrity and ensuring that the reporting for each pipeline is accurate. It prevents confusion by
only showing users the options that are relevant to the specific context of the deal they are managing.

QUESTION 5
Cloud Kicks has hired a new sales executive who wants to implement a document merge solution in
Salesforce. How should a Platform Administrator implement this solution?

A. Download the solution from AppExchange.
B. Install a package from the Partner Portal.
C. Create a managed package in AppExchange.
D. Configure the package from Salesforce Setup.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Salesforce does not provide a robust, native "document merge" engine that can handle complex
templates, headers, and advanced formatting out of the box. Therefore, the standard practice for
implementing such a solution is to download a third-party application from the AppExchange. The
AppExchange is the primary marketplace for Salesforce-integrated solutions, offering popular
document generation tools like Conga Composer, Nintex DocGen, or S-Docs. These tools allow
administrators to create professional-grade documents (like quotes, contracts, and invoices) by
merging Salesforce record data into Word, PDF, or Excel templates. As a Platform Administrator, the
process involves researching the best-fit app for the requirements, installing the package into a
Sandbox for testing, and then deploying it to Production. This approach is highly efficient because it
leverages existing, vetted technology that is specifically designed to handle the complexities of
document generation, saving the organization from trying to build a costly and difficult-to-maintain
custom solution using code or complex automation.

QUESTION 6
How should a Platform Administrator view Currencies, Fiscal Year settings, and Business Hours in Salesforce?

A. User Management Settings
B. Company Settings
C. Custom Settings
D. Feature Settings

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the Salesforce Setup menu, Company Settings (formerly Company Profile) is the central location
where global organizational parameters are managed. This section contains several key settings.
Under Company Information, the admin can view the Org ID, default time zone, and primary
currency. The Fiscal Year settings allow the admin to define whether the organization follows a
standard Gregorian calendar or a custom fiscal cycle. Business Hours are used to define the working
times for the organization, which is critical for calculating milestones in Service Cloud or escalation
rules. If Multi-Currency is enabled, this is also where exchange rates and active currencies are
managed. Viewing and configuring these settings is a foundational task for any Platform
Administrator, as they establish the baseline for how data is interpreted and how time-based
automation functions across the entire instance. Ensuring these are correct is vital for accurate
financial reporting and maintaining service level agreements (SLAs).

PEGACPDC25V1 Certified Pega Decisioning Consultant 25

 

Exam Code: PEGACPDC25V1
Language: English
Retirement Date: N/A
60 Questions
1 hr 30 mins
Passing Score: 70%
Applies to: Pega Customer Decision Hub '25
Exam Code: PEGACPDC25V1
Language: English
Retirement Date: N/A
Beginner English
Prerequisites Decisioning Consultant

The Certified Pega Decisioning Consultant certification is for professionals participating in the design and development of a Pega Customer Decision Hub™ solution. This certification validates you have the skills to apply design principles of Next-Best-Action Designer, 1:1 Operations Manager, Decision Strategies, and Predictive Analytics.

Exam topics
Next-Best-Action concepts (12%)
One-to-one customer engagement
Customer engagement blueprint
Optimize the customer value in the contact center
Essentials of always-on outbound
Define the starting population
Optimize the next-best-action strategy

Actions and treatments (12%)
Define and manage customer actions
Present a single offer on the web
Define an action for outbound

Engagement policies (15%)
Define customer engagement policies
Create an engagement strategy
Create and manage customer journeys

Contact policy and volume constraints (13%)
Avoid overexposure of actions
Avoid overexposure of actions on outbound
Limit action volume on outbound

AI and Arbitration (8%)
Action arbitration
Action prioritization with AI
Prioritize actions with business levers

Channels (10%)
Real-time containers
Create a real-time container
Send offer emails
Share action details with third-party distributors

Decision strategies (15%)
Create and understand decision strategies
Create engagement strategies using customer credit score

Business agility in 1:1 customer engagement (15%)
Agility in a customer engagement project
Change management process
Building your business operations team
Life cycle of a change request
Change request types
Managing Brand Voice with Pega GenAI
Launching a new offer on web
Updating existing actions
Updating actions in bulk
Enhanced email editor
Implementing business changes using Revision Manager

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
U+ Bank observes that some customers receive the same credit card offer multiple times within a short period, which results in dissatisfaction.
The bank wants to suppress a specific credit card offer if it has been shown three times within seven days.
What should you configure in the Contact Policy to prevent a specific credit card offer from being
shown to a customer more than three times in seven days?

A. Set the Tracking Level to Group and the Outcome Type to Impressions.
B. Set the Tracking Level to Group and the Outcome Type to Clicks.
C. Set the Tracking Level to Action and the Outcome Type to Impressions.
D. Set the Tracking Level to Action and the Outcome Type to Clicks.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
A mortgage company defines a new suppression policy to limit promotional emails for home loan
offers. The policy is complete, but it must be applied to all to home loan actions. The implementation
team must associate this policy with the appropriate business structure.
Where should the team associate the contact policy to apply it to home loan promotions?

A. The Engagement policy tab to apply the policy to home loan action group.
B. The Contact policy configuration to update outcome tracking preferences only.
C. The Constraints tab to edit customer contact limits for email channels.
D. The Designer settings to modify global suppression rules for home loan action group.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
In the following figure, a volume constraint uses the Return any action that does not exceed
constraint mode with the three following action type constraints that have remaining limits:
1.Maximum 50 Daily with Action: Protect Your Device, 5 remaining
2.Maximum 75 Daily with Action: MyFone Buds, 7 remaining
3.Maximum 25 Daily with Action: MyFone AirPods Pro, 0 remaining
A customer, CUST-01, qualifies for all the three actions. Given this scenario, how many actions does
the system select for CUST-01 in the outbound run?

A. 3
B. 0
C. 2
D. 1

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A financial services organization introduces a new policy that limits each customer to two
promotional emails per month. To meet compliance requirements, the implementation team must
configure this limit in the Next-Best-Action Designer.
Which configuration steps achieve the desired email frequency limit?

A. Set customer contact limits for the email channel with a two-message monthly restriction.
B. Configure an engagement policy that applies email limits to customer groups only.
C. Create a suppression policy that uses a two-email threshold and a monthly tracking period.
D. Establish context-level limits that track two monthly interactions across channels.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An outbound run identifies 150 Standard card offers, 75 on email, and 75 on the SMS channel. If the
following volume constraint Is applied, how many actions are delivered by the outbound run?

A. 75 emails 25 SMSes
B. 100
C. 75 SMSes and 25 emails
D. 150

Answer: B

AP-209 Advanced Field Service Accredited Professional Exam

 

The AP-209 exam refers to the Salesforce Advanced Field Service Accredited Professional certification, a 75-minute test with 46 multiple-choice questions, requiring a 73% to pass, focusing on advanced Salesforce Field Service implementation and design, available through platforms like Kryterion and Pearson VUE. You can find detailed syllabi, practice tests, and sample questions on sites like Trailhead Academy, VMExam, and P2PExams.

Key Exam Details
Exam Name: Salesforce Advanced Field Service Accredited Professional.
Code: AP-209.
Provider: Salesforce.
Format: 46 multiple-choice/multiple-select questions.
Duration: 75 minutes.
Passing Score: 73%.
Cost: Around $150 USD (check official Salesforce for exact fees).
Proctoring: Kryterion Webassessor or Pearson VUE.

What it Covers
Implementation Strategies & Design.
Core Field Service Functionality.
Advanced Capabilities (e.g., dispatch, scheduling, mobile).

How to Prepare
Salesforce Trailhead: Review the official Field Service resources and implementation guides.
Practice Exams: Use practice tests from reputable sites to get familiar with question types and time management.
Study Guides: Utilize detailed syllabus breakdowns to identify knowledge gaps.

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
Green Energy Solutions would like to become more competitive by providing a better service
experience to prospects calling in to request an initial assessment visit.
What should a consultant recommend to the business in order to achieve such a goal?

A. Increase the length of the arrival window offered to the customer from 4 hours to 8 hours, which
gives the customer more flexibility in preparing for the visit
B. Reduce the length of the arrival window offered to the customers from 4 hours to 2 hours, taking
into consideration that this change might impact the quality of optimization
C. Reduce the length of the arrival window offered to the customers from 4 hours to 2 hours, which
will also allow further flexibility when running optimization
D. Increase the length of the arrival window offered to the customer from 4 hours to 8 hours, as it
will ensure that the assessment visit will be completed before the arrival window ends

Answer: B

Explanation:
This question addresses the trade-off between Customer Experience and Schedule Optimization.
Reducing the arrival window (e.g., from 4 hours to 2 hours) is a common strategy to improve
customer service. Customers prefer shorter wait times and more precise appointments. However, a
consultant must identify the technical impact of this business decision.
Option B is correct because it acknowledges the benefit (customer experience) while correctly
identifying the risk. Smaller arrival windows serve as tighter constraints on the scheduling engine
(Optimization). The engine has less "wiggle room" to shuffle appointments, which can lead to lower
overall utilization or higher travel times.
Option C is incorrect because reducing the window decreases (restricts) flexibility for optimization, it
does not increase it.
Options A and D suggest increasing the window to 8 hours. While this is great for the optimization
engine (maximum flexibility), it is generally considered a poor customer experience to ask a prospect
to wait all day (8 hours), contradicting the business goal of being "more competitive."

QUESTION 2
An admin notices that an org currently has a large number of qualified candidates per Service Appointment.
How can the admin reduce the number of candidates per appointment in order to improve optimization quality?

A. The admin should use database Service Objectives such as 'Minimize Travel', 'Resource Priority' and 'Resource Preferences'
B. The admin should move some of the resources to a different Service Territory with fewer
resources; alternatively, create a new Service Territory and assign it resources
C. The admin should log a support case, as the system should be able to handle this amount of qualified candidates
D. The admin should reduce the number of available candidates for each appointment by adding
additional Work Rules, starting with the 'Match Territory', 'Working Territories', 'Maximum Travel
From Home' and 'Extended Match' Work Rules in case they are not already applied

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Salesforce Field Service, the scheduling engine creates a list of "Qualified Candidates" based on
Work Rules (Hard Constraints). If a search returns too many candidates, it places a heavy load on the
CPU and can degrade optimization performance.
Option D is correct because Work Rules are the mechanism used to filter candidates. Adding rules
like Match Territory (ensuring the resource belongs to the territory), Maximum Travel from Home
(filtering out distant resources), or Extended Match (matching custom criteria) effectively reduces the
pool of eligible technicians before the system attempts to score them. This improves the speed and
quality of the schedule.
Option A is incorrect because Service Objectives are "Soft Constraints." They rank candidates (giving
them a score of 0-100) but do not remove them from the list.
Option B is a manual structural change that doesn't address the configuration issue.
Option C is incorrect because optimization performance is directly controlled by the efficiency of the
configuration (Scheduling Policy).

QUESTION 3
Green Energy Solutions provide two types of services: 'New Installs' (high revenue, high priority with
a 3 day SLA) and 'Inspections' (proactive, low priority activities due 3 months out). The company
incurs a penalty for missing due dates which the service manager would like to avoid. However, not
at the expense of a new install.
What should the consultant's recommendation be in such a case?

A. Add the 'ASAP' Service Objective to the Scheduling Policy, with a 'Relevance Group' that only
considers new installs. Set the weight of that Service Objective to be higher than the 'Priority' Service Objective
B. Set up an automation that sets the priority value to '1' for all inspections that are due tomorrow,
and set the priority of the New install jobs to '1' as well
C. Use a 'Dynamic Priority' formula field that increases the value of the priority each day, up to a
value of '2' (using the 1-100 scale) and set the priority of the new install jobs to '1'
D. For inspections with a due date taking place in the next 7 days, set the 'Schedule Over Lower Priority' Boolean to 'True'

Answer: B

Explanation:
The goal is to prevent low-priority "Inspections" from being ignored indefinitely until they miss their
deadline, without permanently ranking them above high-value "New Installs."
Option B is correct (based on the scenario's specific constraints). By using automation to elevate the
Inspection's priority to '1' (High) only when it is due "tomorrow," the system treats it as urgent only
when necessary to avoid the penalty. Since "New Installs" are also Priority '1', the two will compete
on equal footing on that final day, ensuring the Inspection has a fighting chance to be scheduled
alongside high-value work.
Option C (Dynamic Priority) is a standard solution for "aging" work. However, the option states it caps
the value at '2'. In standard SFS priority (where 1 is highest), a '2' will never beat a '1'. Therefore, the
inspection would still likely be bumped by a New Install (Priority 1) even on its due date, leading to a penalty.
Option D ("Schedule Over Lower Priority") is used for emergency reshuffling, but does not inherently
solve the prioritization logic between these two specific task types.

QUESTION 4
Green Energy Solutions has resources in multiple countries and time zones. Each country has
different holidays and permitted working hours.
What should the consultant configure to support this?

A. Service Territories, Resource Capacity and Business Hours
B. Service Territories, Operating Hours and Resource Absences
C. Work Types, Resource Availabilities and Operating Hours
D. Skills, Operating Hours, Time Slots and Holidays

Answer: B

Explanation:
To model international workforces in Salesforce Field Service, specific objects handle geography,
time, and exceptions.
Option B is correct.
Service Territories: Used to define the geographical areas (Countries/Regions). Crucially, the Time
Zone is defined on the Service Territory record.
Operating Hours: Used to define the "Permitted Working Hours" (e.g., Mon-Fri, 9-5). These are
assigned to the Service Territory or Service Territory Member.
Resource Absences: Used to model time off, such as public holidays or sick days, where the resource
is unavailable. (Note: Holidays can also be linked directly to Operating Hours, but Resource Absences
are the distinct records created on the Gantt).
Option A is incorrect because "Business Hours" is a Service Cloud (Support) object used for Case
Entitlements, not Field Service scheduling. "Resource Capacity" is used for contractors (Capacity-
Based Scheduling), not for defining standard working hours.

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to collect a mobile worker's geolocation history in the Field Service Mobile App
only for some of the resources, while for others, they want this option to be disabled.

How can a consultant implement this requirement?
A. Under the 'Field Service Mobile Settings', set the 'Collect Service Resource Geolocation History' to 'True'
B. Under the 'Field Service Settings', go to the 'Mobile App Configuration' tab and select which users
should be included in the geolocation collection process
C. Under the 'Field Service Settings', go to the 'Mobile App Configuration' tab and select which
profiles should be included in the geolocation collection process
D. Create two 'Field Service Mobile Settings' records and assign it to the relevant profiles, one with
the 'Collect Service Resource Geolocation History' set to 'True' and the other set to 'False'

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Field Service Mobile Settings configuration controls the behavior of the mobile app (branding,
location tracking, flows, etc.).
Option D is correct. To apply different settings to different groups of users, you must create multiple
Field Service Mobile Settings records. You assign these settings records to specific User Profiles.
You would create one settings record with "Collect Service Resource Geolocation History" enabled
(for the tracked users).
You would create a second settings record with it disabled (for the untracked users).
You then map the relevant Profiles to the appropriate Settings record.
Options A, B, and C imply global settings or non-existent tabs ("Mobile App Configuration" tab where
you select users/profiles directly doesn't exist in the global settings in this manner; it is done via the
specific Mobile Settings object assignments).

Plat-Admn-202 Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder Exam

 

The Plat-Admn-202 is the Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder exam, testing your skills in declarative customization, data modeling, security, automation (Flows, Approval Processes), reports/dashboards, and mobile experience optimization, with 65 questions in 105 mins, costing around $200 USD, and requires understanding Salesforce fundamentals to pass. You prepare using Trailhead, sample questions, and practice tests from Salesforce or third-party providers.

Key Exam Details:
Exam Name: Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder.
Exam Code: Plat-Admn-202.
Certification Provider: Salesforce.
Duration: 105 minutes.
Questions: 65.
Cost: Around $200 USD (check Salesforce for current pricing).
Passing Score: ~63-65% (need about 39 correct answers).

What You'll Be Tested On (Syllabus Areas):
Salesforce Fundamentals: Declarative vs. programmatic customization, AppExchange.
Data Model: Creating objects, fields, relationships, validation rules.
Security & Access: Object, record, field access, sharing solutions.
Business Logic & Automation: Flows, Approval Processes, Process Builder (though declining).
User Experience: Page layouts, actions, mobile optimization.
Analytics: Reports, report types, dashboards.

How to Prepare:
Official Trailhead: Salesforce Trailhead for fundamentals and modules.
Sample Questions: Salesforce Sample Questions.
Practice Tests: Use resources like Focus on Force or P2PExams for realistic practice.

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
DreamHouse Realty wants to make sure an Opportunity has a field Expected_Close_Date_c
populated before it is allowed to enter the qualified stage.
How should an app builder solution this request?

A. Record Type
B. Validation Rule
C. Activity History
D. Page Layout

Answer: B

Explanation:
A validation rule is a formula that evaluates the data in one or more fields and returns a value of
oeTrue or oeFalse . Validation rules verify that the data a user enters in a record meets the standards
you specify before the user can save the record. In this case, a validation rule can be used to check if
the Expected_Close_Date_c field is populated before the Opportunity stage is set to qualified

QUESTION 2
An app builder notices several Accounts converted from Leads are missing information they expected to be caught via Account validation rules.
What could be the source of this issue?

A. The lead settings are unchecked to require validation for converted leads.
B. Account validation rules fail to validate on records converted from a lead.
C. The lead settings are allowing users to intentionally bypass validation rules.
D. Lead validation rules fail to validate on records when they are being converted.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The lead settings have an option to require validation for converted leads. If this option is unchecked,
then the Account validation rules will not be enforced when a lead is converted to an Account. This
could result in missing or incorrect information on the Account records

QUESTION 3
An App Builder at UVC would like to prevent users from creating new records on an Account related
list by overriding standard buttons. Which two should the App Builder consider before overriding standard buttons?

A. Standard buttons can be changed on lookup dialogs, list views, and search result layouts
B. Standard buttons can be overridden with a Visualforce page
C. Standard buttons that are not available for overrides can still be hidden on page layouts
D. Standard buttons can be overridden, relocated on the detail page, and relabeled

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Standard buttons can be overridden with a Visualforce page to provide custom functionality or user
interface. For example, you can override the New button on an object to display a custom Visualforce
page instead of the standard page layout3. Standard buttons that are not available for overrides can
still be hidden on page layouts to prevent users from accessing them. For example, you can hide the
Delete button on an object to prevent users from deleting records

QUESTION 4
The Service Manager provided the app builder with color code requirements for case age on open cases.
New cases populate a green circle
Day-old cases populate a yellow circle
Three-day-old cases populate a red circle
How should an app builder implement this requirement?

A. Formula Field
B. Quick Action
C. Custom Button
D. Lightning Web Component

Answer: A

Explanation:
A formula field is a read-only field that derives its value from a formula expression you define.
The formula field is updated when any of the source fields change. You can use formula fields to display
images based on certain conditions. In this case, a formula field can be used to display a green,
yellow, or red circle image based on the case age.

QUESTION 5
Universal Containers (UC) has a time-sensitive need for a custom component to be built in 4 weeks;
UC developers require additional enablement to complete the work and are backlogged by several months.
Which option should an app builder suggest to meet this requirement?

A. Use an AppExchange solution.
B. Build a screen flow page.
C. Build a Lightning record page.
D. Use a Boit solution

Answer: A

Explanation:
An AppExchange solution is a pre-built application or component that can be installed from the
Salesforce AppExchange, which is an online marketplace for Salesforce products. AppExchange
solutions can help you meet your business needs quickly and efficiently, without requiring much
development effort or expertise. You can browse and search for AppExchange solutions by category,
industry, rating, price, and more.