The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, more at http://www.certkingdom.com
ISACA’s Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)
certification indicates expertise in identifying and managing enterprise IT risk
and implementing and maintaining information systems controls. Gain instant
recognition and credibility with CRISC and boost your career!
THE CRISC DIFFERENCE Whether you are seeking a new career opportunity or striving to grow within
your current organization, a CRISC certification proves your expertise in these
work-related domains
PREPARE FOR THE EXAM Set yourself up to succeed on exam day. Whether you prefer to prep on your
own time or want the additional guidance and interaction that comes with live
instruction, we have the right CRISC test prep solutions for you.
Course Description The CRISC Online Review Course is an online preparation course that prepares
learners to pass the CRISC certification exam using proven instructional design
techniques and interactive activities.The course covers all four of the CRISC
domains, and each section corresponds directly to the CRISC job practice.
The course incorporates video, interactive eLearning modules, downloadable,
interactive workbooks, downloadable job aids, case study activities, and pre-and
post-course assessments. Learners will be able to navigate the course at their
own pace, following a recommended structure, or target preferred job practice
areas. Learners may also start and stop the course based on their study
schedule, picking up exactly where they left off the next time they access the
course.
Learning Objectives:
At the completion of this course you will be able to: Identify the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives
and alignment with the Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) strategy.
Analyze and evaluate IT risk to determine the likelihood and impact on business
objectives to enable risk-based decision making.
Determine risk response options and evaluate their efficiency and effectiveness
to manage risk in alignment with business objectives.
Continuously monitor and report on IT risk and controls to relevant stakeholders
to ensure the continued efficiency and effectiveness of the IT risk management
strategy and its alignment with business objectives.
Included Materials: Video
Interactive Content
Downloadable workbooks and job aids
Case study activities
Practice exam
Ideal For: Professionals preparing to become CRISC certified
Risk practitioners
Students or recent graduates
Cancellation/Refund Policy
All purchases of online learning courses are final. Access to the online
learning courses and materials is immediate upon purchasing; therefore no
refunds or exchanges will be provided. Prices subject to change without notice.
Enterprise Training Online review courses are also available for purchase through our enterprise
sales team for larger organizations. Visit the Enterprise Training page and
reach out to an associate for more information.
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk
indicators (KRIs)?
A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that
KRIs continue to effectively
capture these changes.
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external
environments are constantly
changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they
can capture the changes in
threat and vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI
reporting, but is not the
reason for maintenance of KRIs.
B: While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect
to their sensitivity, the most
important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to
effectively capture the changes in
threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that
because of change of threat and
vulnerability overtime.
C: Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for
KRI maintenance.
QUESTION 2 You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the
final compilation process. The
project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few
administrative closure
activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have
wrecked the project but you and your
project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the
project costs or project
completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have
identified during the project's
monitoring and controlling process?
A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization's lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project's risk register
already.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the
organization's lessons learned
database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if
relevant.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk
response plan during the project and
they'll be entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
B: The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after
completing the project, they should be
entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
D: If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project's
risk register then it may not be
shared with project managers working on some other project.
QUESTION 3 You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event
on your project that could save
$100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST
describes this risk event?
A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the
threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential
savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an
opportunity, and the appropriate
strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is
one of the strategies to negate risks
or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with
positive impacts where the
organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a
risk event provides opportunities for
positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project
to reduce the time to completion
is an example of exploit response.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk
events, and not in positive risk
events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save
$100,000, hence it is a positive risk
event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.
B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk;
loss is accepted if it occurs. But as
this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.
QUESTION 4 You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project
will last for 18 months and will cost
$750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and
stakeholders to identify risks
within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why
you have scheduled so
many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just
initially during the project planning.
What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?
A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk
identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events
which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification
participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks
events during project execution.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk identification is an iterative process because new risks may evolve or
become known as the project progresses through its life cycle.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Stakeholders are encouraged to participate in the risk identification
process, but this is not the best choice.
B: Risk identification focuses on discovering new risk events, not the events
which did not happen.
D: The primary reason for iterations of risk identification is to identify new
risk events.
QUESTION 5 You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize
several risks. A risk has a rating for
occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk
Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
Identify potential failure effects
Identify potential causes
Establish links between each identified potential cause
Identify potential failure modes
Assess severity, occurrence and detection
Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to
score these assessments.
Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by
occurrence and detection.
RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection
Hence,
RPN = 4 * 5 * 6
= 120
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence, and
detection.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs
are highly relevant and possess
a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. KRIs help in
avoiding excessively large number of
risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have.
As KRIs are the indicators of risk, hence its most important function is to
effectively give an early warning
signal that a high risk is emerging to enable management to take proactive
action before the risk actually
becomes a loss.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is one of the important functions of KRIs which can help management to
improve but is not as
important as giving early warning.
C: KRIs provide an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
through metric setting, but this is
not as important as giving early warning.
D: This is not as important as giving early warning. Click here to
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Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Developers who design, build,
test, and maintain applications and solutions that are optimized for the
productivity and collaboration needs of organizations using the Microsoft 365
platform.
Candidates for this exam are proficient in Microsoft identity and Microsoft
Graph. They have general knowledge on UI elements (including Adaptive Cards and
UI Fabric), integration points (including Microsoft Teams, Office Add-ins,
SharePoint Framework, Actionable Messages), and determining workload platform
targets.
Candidates should have experience developing solutions on Microsoft Teams,
Office Add-ins, or SharePoint Framework through all phases of software
development. They should have a basic understanding of REST APIs, JSON, OAuth2,
OData, OpenID Connect, Microsoft identities (including Azure AD and Microsoft
accounts), Azure AD B2C, and permission/consent concepts.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Developer Associate
Related exams: none
Important: See details
Exam MS-600: Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core
Services (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks:
implement Microsoft identity; build apps with Microsoft Graph; extend and
customize SharePoint; extend Teams; and extend Office.
Skills measured Implement Microsoft Identity (20-25%)
Build Apps with Microsoft Graph (20-25%)
Extend and Customize SharePoint (20-25%)
Extend Teams (15-20%)
Extend Office (15-20%)
Implement Microsoft Identity (20-25%)
Register an Application • determine the supported account type
• select authentication and client credentials for app type and authentication
flow
• define app roles
Implement Authentication • configure Microsoft Authentication Library (MSAL JS) for endpoint and
token cache
• plan and configure scopes for dynamic or static permission
• use the MSAL JS login method
Configure Permissions to Consume an API • configure Delegated permissions for the app
• configure Application permissions for the app
• identify admin consent requirements
Implement Authorization to Consume an API • configure incremental consent scopes
• call MSAL JS using AquireTokenSilent/AquireToken pattern
Implement Authorization in an API • validate Access Token
• configure effective permissions for delegated scopes
• implement app permissions using roles
• use a delegated access token to call a Microsoft API
Create a Service to Access Microsoft Graph • configure client credentials using
a certificate • configure Application permissions for the app • acquire an
access token for Microsoft Graph using an application permission and client
credential certificate
• acquire an access token using the client secret Build Apps with Microsoft
Graph (20-25%)
Optimize Data Usage with query parameters • use $filter query parameter
• use $select query parameter
• order results using $orderby query parameter
• set page size of results using $skip and $top query parameters
• expand and retrieve resources using $expand query parameter
• retrieve the total count of matching resources using $count query parameter
• search for resources using $search query parameter
• determine the appropriate Microsoft Graph SDK to leverage
Optimize network traffic • monitor for changes using change notifications
• combine multiple requests using $batch
• get changes using a delta query
• implement error 429 handler
Access User data from Microsoft Graph • get the signed in users profile
• get a list of users in the organization
• get the users profile photo
• get the user object based on the users unique identifier
• get the users manager profile
Access Files with Microsoft Graph • get the list of files in the signed in users OneDrive
• download a file from the signed in users OneDrive using file unique id
• download a file from a SharePoint Site using the relative path to the file
• get the list of files trending around the signed in user
• upload a large file to OneDrive
• get a user object from an owner list in a group and retrieve that user’s files
Manage a group lifecycle on Microsoft Graph • get the information on a group
by id • get the list of members in a Group • get the list of owners of a Group • get the list of Groups where the
signed in user is a member
• get the list of Groups where the signed in user is an owner
• provision a Group • provision a Team with a Group
• delete a group Extend and Customize SharePoint
Understand the components of a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part (20-25%) • identify the appropriate tool to create an SPFx Web Part project
• understand properties of client-side web parts
• understand Office UI Fabric in client-side web parts
• understand when to use an app page
• differentiate between app page and web part
• understand rendering framework options
Understand SPFx extensions • identify the appropriate tool to create an SPFx Extension project
• understand page placeholders from Application Customizer
• understand the ListView Command Set extension
• understand the Field Customizer extension
Understand the process to package and deploy an SPFx solution • understand the options for preparing a package for deployment
• understand the options for packaging a solution
• understand the requirements of tenant-scoped solution deployment
• understand the requirements of domain isolated web parts
• understand the options to deploy a solution
Understand the consumption of Microsoft Graph • understand the purpose of the MSGraphClient object
• understand the methods for granting permissions to Microsoft Graph
Understand the consumption of third party APIs secured with Azure AD from
within SPFx • understand the purpose of the AadHttpClient object
• understand the methods for granting permissions to consume a third party API
Understand Web Parts as Teams Tabs • understand the considerations for creating a SPFx Web Part to be a Teams
Tab
• understand the options for deploying a SPFx Web Part as a Teams Tab
Understand branding and theming in SharePoint
• understand the options for SharePoint site theming
• understand the options for site designs and site scripts Extend Teams
Understand the components of a Teams app (15-20%) • understand the purpose of a Teams app manifest
• understand App Studio functionality and features
• identify the components of an app package for Microsoft Teams
• understand the options for distributing a Teams app
• understand the benefits of using deep links
• understand task modules
Understand webhooks in Microsoft Teams
• understand when to use webhooks
• understand the limitations of webhooks
• understand the differences between incoming and outgoing webhooks
Understand tabs in Microsoft Teams • understand when to use tabs
• understand the capabilities of personal tabs
• understand the capabilities of channel tabs
• understand the requirements for tabs for mobile clients
Understand messaging extensions • understand when to use messaging extensions
• understand where messaging extensions can be invoked from
• understand search based messaging extensions
• choose the appropriate message extension command type based on requirements
• understand action-based messaging extensions with adaptive cards
• understand action-based messaging extensions with parameters
Understand conversational bots
• understand when to use conversational bots
• understand the scoping options for bots
• understand when to use a task module from a bot
Extend Office (15-20%)
Understand fundamental components and types of Office Add-ins
• understand task pane and Content Office Add-ins
• understand dialogs
• understand custom functions
• understand Add-in commands
• understand the purpose of Office Add-ins manifest
Understand Office JS APIs • understand the Office Add-in programming model
• understand Office Add-in developer tools
• understand the capabilities of the Excel Javascript API
• understand the capabilities of the Outlook JavaScript API
• understand the capabilities of the Word JavaScript API
• understand the capabilities of the PowerPoint JavaScript API
• understand the capabilities of custom functions
Understand customization of Add-ins • understand the options of persisting state and settings
• understand Office UI Fabric in Office Add-ins
• understand when to use Microsoft Graph in Office Add-ins
• understand authorization when using Microsoft Graph in Office Add-ins
Understand testing, debugging, and deployment options • select deployment options based on requirements
• understand testing and debugging concepts for Office Add-ins
Understand actionable messages • understand the features of actionable messages with an adaptive card
• understand the scenarios for refreshing an actionable message QUESTION 1 You need to configure the initial login request in the access token
JavaScript script.
Which code segment should you insert at line 01?
A. const scopes = ['https://graph.microsoft.com/.default'];
B. const accessTokenRequest = {
};
C. const scopes = ['https://graph.microsoft.com/Files.Read.All',
'https://graph.microsoft.com/Mail.Send.All'];
D. const accessTokenRequest = {
scopes: ['https://graph.microsoft.com/Files.ReadWrite',
'https://graph.microsoft.com/Mail.Send']
};
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Scenario: ADatum identifies the following technical requirements for the planned
E-invoicing capabilities:
Ensure that all operations performed by E-invoicing against Office 365 are
initiated by a user. Require that
the user authorize E-invoicing to access the Office 365 data the first time the
application attempts to access
Office 365 data on the user’s behalf.
QUESTION 2 You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the
Microsoft identity platform. The solution must ensure that the app can perform
operations on behalf of the user.
Which type of authorization flow should you use?
A. authorization code
B. refresh token
C. resource owner password
D. device code
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You are building a server-based web app that will use OAuth2 and will be
registered with the Microsoft identity platform.
Which two values does the app require to obtain tokens from the Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD)
authorization endpoint? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. the tenant ID
B. the context token
C. the application ID
D. the application secret
E. the authorization code
Correct Answer: C,E
QUESTION 4 You develop a web API named WebApi1.
When validating a token received from a client application, WebApi1 receives a
MsalUiRequiredException exception from Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to formulate the response that WebApi1 will return to the client
application.
Which HTTP response should you send?
A. HTTP 307 Temporary Redirect
B. HTTP 400 Bad Request
C. HTTP 403 Forbidden
D. HTTP 412 Precondition Failed
A great way to start the Juniper Networks Certified Professional Data Center
(JNCIP-DC) preparation is to begin by properly appreciating the role that
syllabus and study guide play in the Juniper JN0-681 certification exam. This
study guide is an instrument to get you on the same page with Juniper and
understand the nature of the Juniper JNCIP Data Center exam.
Our team of experts has composed this Juniper JN0-681 exam preparation guide to
provide the overview about Juniper Data Center Professional exam, study
material, sample questions, practice exam and ways to interpret the exam
objectives to help you assess your readiness for the Juniper JNCIP-DC exam by
identifying prerequisite areas of knowledge. We recommend you to refer the
simulation questions and practice test listed in this guide to determine what
type of questions will be asked and the level of difficulty that could be tested
in the Juniper JNCIP Data Center certification exam.
Juniper JN0-681 Exam Overview: Exam Number JN0-681 JNCIP-DC
Exam Price $400 USD
Duration 120 minutes
Number of Questions 65
Passing Score Variable (60-70% Approx.)
Recommended Training Advanced Data Center Switching (ADCX)
Exam Registration PEARSON VUE
Sample Questions Juniper JN0-681 Sample Questions
Practice Exam Juniper Networks Certified Professional Data Center Practice Test
Section Objectives
Data Center Deployment or Management
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting DCI
Data Center Architecture and Security
Describe single tenant and multi-tenant architectures - Traffic isolation
- VRFs
Describe data center security concepts
Juniper JNCIP-DC Exam Description: Designed for experienced data center networking professionals with advanced
knowledge of the Juniper Networks Junos software and data center devices, this
written exam verifies the candidate’s understanding of data center technologies,
related platform configuration, and troubleshooting skills.
QUESTION 1 You are designing a network for a small data center.
In this scenario, which underlay protocol allows for the simplest
implementation?
A. OSPF
B. IBGP
C. EBGP
D. MPLS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 You are asked to manage the oversubscription ratio of your spine and leaf IP
fabric. You determine that you
are at a 3:1 ratio of downstream to upstream traffic and must achieve a 1:1
ratio.
In this scenario, which two actions would you take to achieve this goal? (Choose
two.)
A. Increase the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry
traffic.
B. Reduce the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry
traffic.
C. Increase the number of spine nodes in your design.
D. Reduce the number of leaf nodes in your design.
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 3 You are designing a Layer 3 fabric underlay using EBGP. You will implement
an EVPN-signaled VXLAN overlay on the Layer 3 fabric.
In this scenario, what must you do in the underlay to ensure that the VXLAN
overlay will be able to function properly?
A. The underlay should advertise the host-connected interfaces on all leaf
devices.
B. Each device in the underlay should advertise its loopback address.
C. The underlay should be configured with a separate VRF for each potential
tenant.
D. The underlay should support the PIM protocol.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You are configuring VXLAN, and you must ensure that all switches for the
multicast groups advertise their existence and learn about other VTEPs.
In this scenario, which protocol will accomplish this task?
Exam Name: Nokia Cloud Packet Core
Exam Number: 4A0-M05
Credit Towards Certifications:
Nokia Cloud Packet Core Expert
Nokia Service Routing Architect
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Required Passing Score: 80%
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45
minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 40
Language: English
For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course
objectives and modules in the course outline.
Course Overview This hands-on instructor-led course explores the Nokia Cloud Packet Core
(CPC) Solution. It starts with an in-depth review of the Cloud Packet Core
architecture and its cloud native characteristics. Virtualization and optimal
deployment options for the CPC are presented as well as performing life cycle
operations with CloudBand Application Manager (CBAM). The virtual network
function (VNF) architecture of the Nokia Cloud Mobility Manager (CMM), the Cloud
Mobile Gateway (CMG), and the Smart Plan Suite (SPS) are all addressed. The
course concludes with an exploration of how to evolve to 5G.
Credit Towards Certification Nokia Cloud Packet Core Expert
Nokia Service Routing Architect
Course Number TT01365-V-1809
Recommended Prerequisites Nokia Mobile Gateways
Nokia Mobility Manager
Course Objectives After completing the course, students should be able to:
Describe the architecture of the Nokia CPC and its cloud native design
capabilities
Illustrate the network function virtualization platform used for CPC
Describe the management architecture of the CPC
Explain key virtualization concepts
Use CBAM to deploy CMM and CMG
Explain the VNF architecture of the Nokia CMM
Explain the VNF architecture of the Nokia CMG
Describe the virtual machine (VM) components of the CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the IP networks required by the CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the dimensioning, scaling, resiliency, and lifecycle management of the
CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the architecture and the components of the Nokia Smart Plan Suite (SPS)
VNF
Identify the different 5G deployment options
Illustrate how the Nokia CPC architecture supports the evolution towards 5G
Describe 5G non-standalone option 3
Verify the health of CPC VNFs including their stacks, VMs, and networks
Troubleshoot virtualization infrastructure using CLI commands
Configure the CMM and CMG on a Nokia CPC for an LTE Attach
Troubleshoot LTE Attach failure scenarios using UE call traces and logs
Perform Life-Cycle Management (LCM) operations on CMM and CMG with CBAM
Course Modules
• Module 1 – Introduction to Cloud Packet Core
• Module 2 – CPC Virtualization
• Module 3 – Cloud Mobility Manager
• Module 4 – Cloud Mobile Gateway
• Module 5 – Smart Plan Suite
• Module 6 – Evolution to a 5G Core
• Module 7 – CPC Troubleshooting and Analytics
QUESTION: 1
Which of the following management tools performs the function of virtual infrastructure manager (VIM) in the
CPC NFV architecture?
A. NetAct
B. CloudBand Infrastructure Software (CBIS)
C. Operations Support System (OSS)
D. Network Service Platform (NSP)
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements about the network service platform (NSP) is FALSE?
A. Acts as an element management system (EMS) for CPC components
B. Performs fault, performance, and security management
C. Has a northbound interface with the NFV orchestrator (NFVO)
D. Allows monitoring events associated with the NFV environment
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following network elements is implemented by the Nokia CPC?
A. Policy and charging rules function (PCRF)
B. Equipment Identity Registration (EIR)
C. Application Function (AF)
D. eNodeB
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 4
What is the main benefit of splitting the core network into separate user-plane and control-plane nodes?
A. Independent configuration of user-plane and control-plane nodes
B. Independent scaling of user-plane and control-plane nodes
C. User of a shared data repository for storing user states.
D. Creation of networks with isolated properties over a common infrastructure
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following statements about SR-IOV is FALSE?
A. VMs using OVS and SR-IOV can be instantiated on the same compute node.
B. SR-IOV offers comparable performance to non-visualized hardware.
C. The VM must be attached to the PF to achieve highest performance.
D. Using SR-IOV restricts VM mobility.
Duration: 1 hour and 30 minutes
Number of questions: 40 (Multiple Choice)
Pass mark: 65%
Open book: No
Electronic equipment allowed: No
Level: Advanced
Available languages: English, Chinese, Japanese, Brazilian Portuguese, German,
Spanish, French, Dutch
EXIN DevOps Professional This EXIN DevOps Professional certification has been designed to give IT
professionals background knowledge and understanding of essential DevOps
practices. Created as a stepping-stone to the EXIN DevOps Master certification,
this certification looks at the Three Ways, the good habits of change control,
and maintaining security compliance.
Who is this certification for? DevOps Professional is ideal for professionals who are working in a DevOps
environment. This includes DevOps engineers, Agile scrum practitioners, Lean IT
professionals, software or website developers and project managers.
Main subjects DevOps Adoption
The First Way: Flow
The Second Way: Feedback
The Third Way: Continual Learning and Experimentation
Information Security and Change Management
QUESTION 1 An IT architecture is characterized as monolithic and rigidly bound.
What difficulty with adopting DevOps practices can be expected?
A. Clearly defining the boundaries of the IT systems
B. Defining areas of responsibility for each DevOps team
C. Maintaining the increasingly complex architecture
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 DevOps benefits from a ‘start-up spirit’ to focus on innovation and
entrepreneurship.
Which attitude to change fits with that start-up spirit in DevOps?
A. Authoritarian
B. Autonomous
C. Conservatism
D. Experiments
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Commercial off-the-shelf software (COTS) has both advantages and limitations
for businesses.
What is true about COTS?
A. COTS supports continuous development with its fast implementation
B. COTS will save the business time and money, by reducing development time
C. Depending on the type of COTS used, the possibility of customization is
limited
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 DevOps implies that not only the boundary between Development and Operations
must disappear.
Which other boundary must also disappear?
A. The boundary between Development and marketing
B. The boundary between IT management and the rest of the IT department
C. The boundary between the finance department and Development
D. The boundary between the HR department and Operations
E. The boundary between the IT department and the business
Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about Dell EMC
Information Storage and Management (DEA-1TT4) Certification exam. This study
guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for
items on the DEA-1TT4 Dell EMC Information Storage Management exam. The Sample
Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions
and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of
an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual
Dell EMC DECA-ISM certification exam.
The Dell EMC Information Storage and Management certification is mainly targeted
to those candidates who want to build their career in Information Storage and
Management domain. The Dell EMC Certified Associate - Information Storage and
Management (DECA-ISM) exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental
knowledge and proven skills in the area of Dell EMC DECA-ISM.
Dell EMC Information Storage and Management Exam Summary: Exam Name Dell EMC Certified Associate - Information Storage and Management
(DECA-ISM)
Exam Code DEA-1TT4
Exam Price $230 (USD)
Duration 90 mins
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 60%
Books / Training Information Storage Management (ISM) V4 - OnDemand Course
(ES131STG00799)
Information Storage Management V4 -Classroom (ES111STG00802)
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions Dell EMC Information Storage and Management Sample Questions
Practice Exam Dell EMC DEA-1TT4 Certification Practice Exam
Dell EMC DEA-1TT4 Exam Syllabus Topics:
Modern Data Center Infrastructure - Describe the data classification,
elements of a data center, key characteristics of a data center, and key
technologies driving digital transformation - Explain the cloud characteristics, cloud service models, and cloud
deployment models
- Explain the key characteristics of big data, components of a big data
analytics solution, Internet of Things (IoT), machine learning, and artificial
intelligence (AI)
- Describe the building blocks of a modern data center
- Describe a compute system, storage, connectivity in a data center,
application, and options to build a modern data center
Storage Networking Technologies - Describe Storage Area Network (SAN), FC
architecture, FC topologies, zoning, and virtualization in FC SAN - Describe TCP/IP, IP SAN, iSCSI protocol, components, connectivity,
addressing, discovery domains, and VLAN
- Explain the components and connectivities of FCIP and FCoE
Storage Systems - Explain the components of an intelligent storage system,
RAID, erasure coding, data access methods, scale-up and scale-out architectures - Explain the components of block-based storage system, storage
provisioning, and storage tiering mechanisms
- Explain the NAS components and architecture, NAS file sharing methods, and
file-level virtualization and tiering
- Describe object-based storage device components, functions, operations, and
unified storage architecture
- Describe software-defined storage attributes, architecture, functions of the
control plane, software-defined extensibility, and software-defined networking
functionalities
Backup, Archive, and Replication - Describe the information availability
measurements and key fault tolerance techniques - Explain backup granularity, architecture, backup targets, operations, and
backup methods
- Describe data deduplication and data archiving solutions architecture
- Describe replication uses, and replication and migration techniques
Security and Management - Describe the information security goals,
terminologies, various security domains, and threats to a storage infrastructure - Explain key security controls to protect the storage infrastructure
- Describe the storage infrastructure management functions and processes 16%
To ensure success in Dell EMC DECA-ISM certification exam, we recommend
authorized training course, practice test and hands-on experience to prepare for
Dell EMC Information Storage Management (DEA-1TT4) exam. QUESTION 1
What is an accurate statement about Governance?
A. Restrict access to certain users
B. Ensure removal of security risks
C. Authorize policy-making decisions
D. Demonstrate adherence to polices
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24
hours, from Monday through Friday.
However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:
• Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM
• Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM
• Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM
• Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM
What is the MTTR of Port 4?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 28 hours
D. 38 hours
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?
A. Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
B. Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
C. Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
D. Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system,
data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is
protected by the configuration?
QUESTION 1
How should Smart Folders be identified and recognized?
A. Smart Folders should be recognized by their type smf:smartFolder
B. Smart Folders should be recognized by parent-child type used smf:contains
C. Smart Folders should be recognized by their aspect smf:smartFolder
D. Smart Folders should be recognized by the special node reference used.
E. Smart Folders cannot be recognized as they are not different from any other cm:folder.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.alfresco.com/6.0/references/sf-tech-faqs.html
QUESTION 2
If an object is moved to a different folder, what will happen to the node’s security permissions?
A. It will inherit the ACL from the new parent folder.
B. It will inherit the ACL from the user who is moving it.
C. It will inherit the system wide ACL.
D. It will keep its old ACL.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not an Alfresco-supplied subsystem category?
A. Dictionary.
B. Authentication.
C. Audit.
D. Search.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.alfresco.com/community5.0/concepts/subsystem-categories.html
QUESTION 4
When testing an Alfresco Content Services extension under high levels of concurrency, you notice that some
transactions are failing due to locking issues with the database. What is an appropriate way to resolve this?
A. Manually unlock the offending records and start the testing again.
B. Directly use Alfresco’s database connection pool and write your own SQL.
C. Use the RetryingTransactionHelper to retry code that fails due to locking.
D. Rewrite the queries used by your application to reduce the chance of the lock.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does it mean when it is said in Solr indexing that the index is “eventually consistent”?
A. The index will only be consistent after a server restart.
B. The index will become consistent when there are no more transactions to index.
C. The index becomes consistent once a day when the index job runs.
D. The index can only be consistent when the Lucene index job eventually runs.
