The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, more at http://www.certkingdom.com
To earn the CCBA designation, candidates must: Complete a minimum of 3,750 hours of Business Analysis work experience in
the last 7 years.
Within these 3750 minimum hours required, a minimum of 900 hours must be
completed in each of 2 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas OR, a minimum of
500 hours must be completed in each of 4 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas.
Complete a minimum of 21 hours of Professional Development within the last 4
years.
Provide references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CCBA Competencies
Is CCBA for you? The CCBA certificate is for:
Individuals with an ECBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
QUESTION 1 You are currently working on creating the activity list for an initiative in
your organization. What characteristic must be assigned to each task in your
task list?
A. Procurement needs
B. Risk level
C. Unique number
D. Roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Each task in the task list should have a unique number to identify the specific
task and it should have a description of what the task is.
Answer: B is incorrect. The risk level is not associated with the task list.
Answer: D is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are not included directly in
the task list.
Answer: A is incorrect. Procurement needs are not included in the task list.
QUESTION 2 Shelly is the business analyst for her organization and she's working with
Thomas to review the business
requirements. They are discussing the identified requirements, how the
requirements will transition to the
operations, and the longevity of the solution. Thomas is concerned that the
identified requirements may not
map to the desired future state of the organization. What business analysis task
is Shelly facilitating in this scenario?
A. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition
B. Requirements quality assurance
C. Validate requirements
D. Stakeholder management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shelly and Thomas are performing the validate requirements task. This task
helps to ensure that the
requirements map to the business goals and objectives, resolve the issue, and
predict the longevity of the requirements to satisfy business needs.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is not a business analysis task called
requirements quality assurance.
Answer: A is incorrect. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition is a task to
ensure that the requirements are
clear and precise enough to create tests and inspect to know that the work has
been completed.
Answer: D is incorrect. Stakeholder management is the management of
stakeholders' issues, conflicts,
queries, concerns, threats, and perceived threats about the requirements.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following are documented approaches to the business analysis
work? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
A. Deming's Quality Circle
B. Lean
C. Six Sigma
D. Waterfall approach
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The waterfall approach, lean, and Six Sigma are the valid answer for business
analysis approaches.
Answer: A is incorrect. Deming's Quality Circle describes the quality management
approach of plan, do, check, and act. This isn't a business analysis approach.
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with the
stakeholders to prioritize the
requirements. The stakeholders are concerned about the financial impact of the
requirements should some of
them fail during the implementation. You would like to rank the risk tolerance
of the stakeholders based on
their comments about the solution and the requirements. The following are the
three categories of risk
tolerance associated with the stakeholders except for which one?
A. Neutrality
B. Mitigation
C. Risk-seeking
D. Risk-aversion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mitigation is a risk response that seeks to lower the risk's probability
and/or impact. It is not one of the three categories of risk tolerance.
QUESTION 5 Tracy is a business analyst for her organization and she's gathered and
identified the needed requirements for
the solution scope. What must Tracy do before she can begin managing the
requirements? Choose the best answer.
A. Tracy must decompose the requirements in WBS.
B. Tracy must create cost-benefits analysis of each requirement to manage the
benefits first.
C. Tracy must identify roles, responsibilities, and owners of the requirements
to fully manage the requirements.
D. Tracy must communicate the requirements to the stakeholders for their consent
and approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Requirements must be communicated before they are managed. Tracy must
communicate the requirements to
the stakeholders for their consent and approval before managing the
requirements.
Answer: A is incorrect. Before Tracy decomposes the requirements, she should
have the approval of the stakeholders.
Answer: B is incorrect. To begin managing the requirements, Tracy needs the
approval and consent of the stakeholders.
Answer: C is incorrect. This isn't a valid statement, as the best thing to do is
to gain the approval of the stakeholders first. Certkingdom
Review, Certkingdom
IIBA CCBA PDF Best IIBA
CCBACertification, IIBA
CCBA Training at certkingdom.com
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance
Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content
coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation
Specialist – Risk and Compliance certified.
Exam Purpose The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam certifies
that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute
to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of ServiceNow Risk, Policy
and Compliance, and Audit Management applications.
Exam Audience The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam is
available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in
becoming a ServiceNow Risk and Compliance
Implementer.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and
Compliance exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training
course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• GRC Fundamentals
• Audit Management Implementation
• Risk and Compliance Implementation -
*Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a voucher code to register for
the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam.
Recommended Knowledge & Education ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals (ILT)
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals (eLearning)
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation (ILT)
• CIS-Risk and Compliance Exam Prep
Performance Analytics Essentials • Service Portal Fundamentals
Additional Recommended Experience
• Six (6) months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment
projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least two ServiceNow deployment projects
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms
Exam Scope Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics
and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
Implementation Planning • Use Cases
• Implementation Team
• Implementation Checklist
• Personas, Groups, and Roles
Policy and Compliance Implementation Approach • Policy and Compliance Record Lifecycles
• Policy and Compliance Architecture
• Policy Management Lifecycle
Exam Registration Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor
website using a voucher obtained by completing the Risk and Compliance
Implementation training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the
prerequisite training path is nontransferable and provides the candidate
eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and
Compliance exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam.
This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own
system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure The exam consists of approximately (45) questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately
calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not
provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again
up to three more times for a cost of $150.
Sample Item #1:
Which of the following are scoped applications in GRC? (Select all that apply)
A. GRC Profiles
B. Risk
C. Compliance and Audit Management
D. Global
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #2:
Who should be on the core implementation team for a GRC implementation? (Select
all that apply)
A. Platform experts
B. Internal audit
C. External audit
D. Risk Assessor
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #3:
The Entity Filter record requires which mandatory field to be completed?
A. Filter date
B. Filter name
C. Conditions
D. Table
Answer: D
Sample Item #4:
Which of the following are tables in the Policy and Compliance scope? (Select
all that apply)
A. Issue
B. Control
C. Risk
D. Citation
Answer: B & D
Sample Item #5:
Which of the following are tables in the Risk scope? (Select all that apply)
A. Issue
B. Risk Framework
C. Risk Statement
D. Citation
Answer: B & C
Sample Item #6:
Which plugin is required for continuous monitoring? (Select all that apply)
A. Configuration Compliance
B. Vulnerability Response
C. UCF Integration
D. Performance Analytics GRC
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #7:
Which roles are installed with Audit Management? (Select all that apply)
A. Audit Admin
B. GRC User
C. GRC Reviewer
D. External Auditor
Exam Title: Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Implementation
Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-996
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 70
Passing Score: 68%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C
Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Certified Implementation
Specialist Exam Preparation
Recommended Training
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam. Review Exam Topics
Customer Information
Maintain and Manage Customer Information
Billing Maintain Bill Segments
Complete Bills
Payments Manage Payments
Manage Overpayment and Payment Distribution
Monitor Overdue Debt Configure and Manage Credit & Collections and Overdue Processes
Manage Payment Arrangements and Pay Plans
Service Points & Install Events Explain the concept of an install event and the relationship between devices
and service points
VEE Explain the difference between critical validations and validation rules,
including when critical validations are executed and when validation rules are
executed.
Explain the VEE process, including the data prepration steps that are executed
immediately prior to entering VEE processing,w hat data is prassed into the VEE
engine and what happens during VEE execution for a given IMD
Configure new VEE groups that contain base packate VEE rules and apply a VEE
group to a device or device type
Configure eligibility criteria and criteria field value retrieval algorithms to
determine if a rule should be applied.
Expalin the categories of IMD exceptions (generated by VEE rules)
Usage Explain the usage calculation process
Explain the relationships between usage transactions and usage subscriptions
Use the Get Scalar Details usage rule to retrieve scalar measurements for scalar
internal measuring components
Operational Device Management
Explain the role of assets and components
Explain the specifications and their relationship to assets
Rates Manage and Apply Rates
Apply Proration
Apply Bill Factors
Adjustments
Configure and Manage Adjustments
Devices & Measuring Components Explain the concept of a measuring component and the strcutures that
represent them
Explain the relationship between devices and measureing components
Explain the different types of measuring components
Configure a device type
Configure a new measuring component type
Configure a new device config type and associate a measuring component to a
device
Measurements Explain the differences between initial measurements, final measurements,
and usage
Explain the high level process of loading measurements through to calculating
usage
Explain the derived values and how they are associated with the final
measurements
Configure a new derive value algorithm
Explain three types of IMDs and the differences between them
Explain the IMD exception statuses and the Automatic Retry functionality
Usage Subscriptions
Explain the concept of usage subscriptions
Explain the possible relationships between measuring components, service points
and usage subscriptions
Design and set up the admin data required to effectively configure a usage
subscription
Fieldwork and Service Order Management Explain the concept of a Service Order ("Orchrestrator") Activity
Explain the concept of Service Order Children Activities
QUESTION 1 Critical validation rules verify the integrity of the initial measurement
data (IMD). If an implementation needs to add new critical validations, where
would you configure them?
A. as new lifecycle algorithms on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
B. in the pre-processing algorithm of the IMD Seeder BO (Dl-IMDSeeder)
C. as options on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
D. in the schema of the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
E. in the validation algorithm on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which three statements are true about usage subscriptions? (Choose three.)
A. A usage subscription can have either parent or child service points.
B. A usage subscription can be configured to include only a portion of a service
point usage.
C. A usage subscription can have many service points.
D. Usage subscriptions are always related to an account.
E. A usage subscription can have only one service point.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3 On which three entities can proration be disabled? (Choose three.)
A. Calculation Rule Business Object
B. Bill Factor
C. Calculation Rule
D. Rate Version Calculation Group
E. Rate Schedule
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 4 The base package usage transaction business object is represented by
D2-UsageTransaction. The usage
calculation engine or process drives the specifics of the usage to be calculated
on this business object.
Based on this, which three configuration areas will have an impact on the usage
calculation process? (Choose three.)
A. VEE rule
B. TOU map
C. Usage Rule
D. Factor Override
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5 Which describes derived values and their relationship with Final
Measurements?
A. Final Measurements can have multiple derived values, which represent other
values for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
B. Derived values can have multiple Final Measurements, which represent other
values for the same Initial Measurement Date/Time.
C. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents an
alternative for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
D. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents the Initial
Measurement for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing security automated
solutions, including: Programming concepts
RESTful APIs
Data models
Protocols
Firewalls
Web
DNS
Cloud and email security
ISE
Exam Description The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735)
exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified
DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist - Security Automation
and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of
implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts,
RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email
security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions,
helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git (add, clone, push,
commit, diff, branching, and merging conflict)
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs
synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes,
conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible
and Puppet for automating security platforms
2.1 Describe the event streaming capabilities of Firepower Management Center
eStreamer API
2.2 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
2.2.a Firepower (Firepower Management Center and Firepower Device Management)
2.2.b ISE
2.2.c pxGRID
2.2.d Stealthwatch Enterprise
2.3 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Management Center API
2.4 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Threat Defense API (also known as Firepower Device Manager API)
2.5 Construct a Python script for pxGrid to retrieve information such as
endpoint device type, network policy and security telemetry
2.6 Construct API requests using Stealthwatch API
2.6.a perform configuration modifications
2.6.b generate rich reports
3.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
3.1.a Umbrella Investigate APIs
3.1.b AMP for endpoints APIs
3.1.c ThreatGRID API
3.2 Construct an Umbrella Investigate API request
3.3 Construct AMP for endpoints API requests for event, computer, and policies
3.4 Construct ThreatGRID APIs request for search, sample feeds, IoC feeds, and
threat disposition
4.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
4.1.a Umbrella reporting and enforcement APIs
4.1.b Stealthwatch cloud APIs
4.1.c Cisco Security Management Appliance APIs
4.2 Construct Stealthwatch cloud API request for reporting
4.3 Construct an Umbrella Reporting and Enforcement API request
4.4 Construct a report using Cisco Security Management Appliance API request
(email and web)
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is typically used to manage a Cisco router in-band?
(Select the best answer.)
A. a VTY port
B. a serial port
C. a console port
D. an auxiliary port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following enables the validation of both user and device
credentials in a single EAP transaction? (Select the best answer.)
A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-FAST with EAP chaining
D. EAP-MD5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following features protects the control plane by classifying
traffic into three separate control plane subinterfaces? (Select the best
answer.)
A. CoPP
B. CPPr
C. RBAC
D. uRPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is an outputspreading technique that spammers use to
manipulate reputation scores and defeat filters? (Select the best answer.)
A. phishing
B. snowshoe spam
C. waterfalling
D. listwashing
Course Description The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the most widely accepted approach to
IT service management in the world. ITIL is a best practice framework that has
been drawn from both the public and private sectors internationally. It
describes how IT resources should be organized to deliver business value,
documenting the processes, functions and roles of IT Service Management (ITSM).
The focus of a business should move from simply managing the company’s IT to
making IT truly productive by helping the business achieve its strategic goals.
ITIL certification helps organizations fulfill this goal by providing guidelines
for establishing governance standards and enhancing the alignment between
business and its IT processes.
Audience: ITIL certification is most suited for IT Managers, System Analysts,
Quality Analysts, System Administrators, Operations Managers, and Database
Administrators.
Course Objectives Understand and implement IT Service Management best practices, key concepts,
principles, and process models required for clearing the ITIL Foundation
certification exam
Gain understanding of scope, purpose, and objective of, service strategy,
service transition, service design, service operations, and Continual Service
Improvement
Apply ITIL concepts, tools and techniques to improve effectiveness and
efficiency of business for optimizing customer experience
Learn to automate standard tasks and apply lean principles to enhance efficiency
of IT Service Management processes in this ITIL 2011 foundation training
Centralize processes and teams and save costs using well defined fit-for-use and
fit-for purpose processes
ITIL Foundation course provides participants a complete structure with a set of
procedures to help them take a proactive approach in improving business
performance with the help of IT.
ITIL Foundation Definition: ITIL Foundation is a certification based on ITIL practices for IT Service
Management. The Foundation certification aims to give professionals an
understanding of the guidelines and framework.
Context: Overview ITIL Foundation is designed to give professionals a basic understanding of
the ITIL framework. It focuses on awareness and comprehension rather than being
able to apply ITIL principles. The basics of IT Service Management as a practice
are covered as is the ITIL lifecycle.
Topics Some of the topics covered in ITIL Foundation include:
IT Service Management as a practice
ITIL Service Cycle
Technology and architecture
Competence and training
The certification also covers processes, models, functions, and roles. The
learning objectives focus on knowing and understanding key terms and
definitions.
To become certified for ITIL Foundation, a professional needs to sit the ITIL
Foundation exam which consists of 40 multiple choice questions. A certificate is
awarded when the professional correctly answers 65% of the questions. The exam
can be done as a conclusion to classroom training or it can be prepared for
through self-study.
Related Certifications: There are many ways to further extend your contextual knowledge of IT
Service Management to broaden your understanding. One of these ways is to build
on your ITIL knowledge with a VeriSM™ certification. The VeriSM™ Plus module
offers professionals knowledge of new and emerging technologies. This
certification ensures that professionals have a grasp of the progessive
practices and innovative technologies that are now emerging rapidly as a
consequence of digital transformation.
QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and
tools when improving services?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed?
A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a
standard change?
A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?
A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change
quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure
they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and
implementation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication
of service requests and incidents?
A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management
Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to understand Microsoft Dynamics 365; artificial
intelligence (AI); mixed reality (MR); the Power Platform; cloud concepts; cloud
security; role-based security in Dynamics 365; Common Data Service; data
management framework; Dynamics 365 reporting; Dynamics 365 integrations; and
cloud deployment.
This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365. Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365
capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working
experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also
have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing
business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.
Audience Profile This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities
and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working
experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also
have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing
business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%) Describe integration capabilities
• integration across Dynamics 365 apps
• integration across Microsoft products
• integration with third-party apps
• custom integrations in Dynamics 365
Describe Dynamics 365 cloud security • encryption
• authentication
• data ownership
• data center access
• SSO
• Data loss protection (DLP)
• industry standard certifications (GDPR, etc)
Understand the benefits of role based security • app role-based security
• leveraging security roles
• streamlined user experience
• out-of-the-box security roles
Identify the business value of the Microsoft cloud • Azure features used by Dynamics 365
• PaaS
• Life Cycle Services (LCS)
Understand the use of Power Platform in Dynamics 365 • Power Apps
• Power BI
• Power Automate
• AI Builder
• Common Data Service
Understand the benefits of the Common Data Service • analytics
• extensibility
• interoperability
• consistency
Identify Dynamics 365 reporting capabilities • built in reporting
• role-based reporting
• extensible reporting
Understand AI and Mixed Reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%) Leverage AI for data insights
• fraud protection
• virtual agents
• sales insights
• customer insights
• relationship insights
• customer service insights
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales
• dynamics 365 sales automation
• pipeline management
• contact management
• customer requests and follow up
• LinkedIn Sales Navigator
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Marketing • lead generation and qualifications
• customer journey
• surveys
• landing pages
• segmentation
• event management
• dynamics 365 for marketing
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Field Service • Resource Scheduling Optimization (RSO)
• Connected Field Service
• service resource scheduling
• proactive customer service
• Field Service Mobile
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Service • account management
• omni channel service
• case life cycle
• knowledge articles
Understand Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance • General Ledger
• Accounts Payable
• Accounts Receivable
• project accounting
• budgeting
• global attributes
• end to end business processes
• real time cash flow visibility
• enterprise asset management
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Human Resources • employee self-service
• personnel management
• benefits management
• employee development
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Business Central • finance
• supply chain
• project management
• sales and service
• budgeting
• when to use Business Central vs other Dynamics 365 products
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management • project accounting
• modernize operations
• procurement and sourcing
• manufacturing
• warehouse management
• master planning
• product information
Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Commerce • retail capability
• Channel Management
• Point of Sale (POS)
• mobile commerce
QUESTION 1 You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the
cloud.
You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?
A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created
in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts
Correct Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION 3 A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a
customized app that allows
sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops,
tablets, and mobile
devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?
