The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, more at http://www.certkingdom.com
QUESTION 1 Your customer tells you that they had problems in the past with the keys on
their Notebook wearing out.
Which feature should you turn into a benefit for the customer'?
A. HP DuraKeys
B. spill resistant keyboard
C. HP 3D DriveGuard
D. HP DuraFinish
Answer: A
Reference:http://blog.laptopmag.com/hp-elitebook-8740w-workstations-display-shows-an-incredible-1-billioncolors
QUESTION 2 What is the customer benefit behind HP Wireless Direct printing?
A. Making a wireless encrypted connection directly to the printer does not
require access to a corporate network.
B. Store print jobs on your mobile device until the user is at the printer to
ensure output can be collected immediately.
C. Printing via an Ethernet cable connection avoids potential security risks
associated with wireless networks.
D. Connecting and printing via the cloud takes out the need for corporate
networks.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which serviceability benefit does the HP 800 series offer?
A. a replacement device within twodays
B. remote servicing support
C. EasyAccess door
D. a two-hour, onsite visit
Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A customer is looking to combine the functionality of a variety of devices
in one space-saving device.
What should you recommend?
A. HP Quick Sets
B. an HP Flow Scanner
C. an HP multifunction printer
D. any HP small workteam printer
Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which capability of the HP Workstation Z1 is key to its serviceability?
A. flexible placement options
B. USB 3.0 support
C. flexible configuration options
D. tool-less access
Certification Overview This certification validates the ability to perform basic skill level tasks
in installing, configuring, maintaining and troubleshooting Dell EMC Networking
products
Certification Requirements To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Pass the following Exam
• DEA-5TT1 Associate - Networking Exam
Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of December 14, 2018.
Other Certification Recommendations This certification will qualify towards the following Specialist level
certifications in the Dell EMC Proven Professional Program
• Specialist – Infrastructure Security Version 1.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Campus Networking Version 1.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Data Center Networking Version 1.0
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements.
*Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the
latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level
requirement.
Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate - Networking track.
This exam focuses on basic Networking foundational skills and portfolio
introduction.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in
preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the
topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a
practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored
exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A
passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the
certification exam.
Products Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited
to:
• Dell EMC Networking Switches
Exam Topics Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
Networks – The Basics (7%)
• Explain the purpose and function of network devices such as switches and
routers, WANs and LANs, and common Campus and Datacenter topologies
• Explain the purpose and basic operations of the OSI model
• Describe the concepts and use cases for Layer 2 - Data Link Layer, Discovery
protocols
Ethernet Networking (7%) • Describe Ethernet networking
• Describe the standards of how Ethernet operates and how addressing is used to
move data on the Ethernet network
Switching Fundamentals and Creating a Switched Network (23%) • Explain the reason for network switching and the process of moving frames
within a switched network
• Explain how to differentiate between a broadcast domain and collision domain
• Explain how to select cabling and the cables that are certified for network
connectivity
• Describe the concepts of VLANs, Spanning-Tree protocol, and Link Aggregation
and how each functions within the network
Internet Protocol v4 and v6 (14%) • Identify and describe the differences between private and public IP
addressing, and describe classful and CIDR addressing
• Describe IPv4 addressing and explain the process of using IPv4 in the network
• Describe IPv6 addressing and explain the process of using IPv6 in the network
Transport Layer (7%)
• Describe the function of the Transport layers, how it supports host-to-host
connectivity, and protocols used by the Transport layers and their use cases
IP Routing Technologies and Routing Protocols (15%) • Describe basic routing concepts and explain how to interpret a routing
table
• Identify and describe the differences between static and dynamic routing
• Identify and describe the classifications of routing protocols and how they
are used to route within and between autonomous systems
• Explain the routing process used by RIPv2, OSPF, and BGP (link state and
distance vector routing) routing protocols
IP and Network Services (7%) • Describe the DHCP and NTP service and explain the configuration steps
• Describe Access Control Lists (ACLs) and Network Address Translation
Security, Authentication, and ACLs (3%)
• Describe the options and processes of securing access to the network
Switch Stacking, Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter, and Modular Switch Portfolio
(10%) • Describe the key concepts of stacking and the hardware required to
configure stacking using OS 6, OS 9, and OS 10
• Describe the switch models that are part of the Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter,
and Modular Switch portfolio
Dell EMC Switch Software, Configuration, and Management (7%) Explain how software is used to configure and manage Dell EMC switches, and
describe the steps to complete an initial switch configuration
Recommended Training The following curriculum is recommended for candidates preparing to take
this exam.
QUESTION 1
What are Network Address Translation (NAT) inside global addresses?
A. Addresses used by NAT router when sending frames to devices on the local
network
B. Public IP addresses used by the local network to communicate with the
Internet
C. Private IP addresses used by the local network
D. Pubic addresses used by other networks outside of the local network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which topology is considered a best practice when stacking switches?
A. Ring
B. Cascade
C. Serial
D. Daisy-chain
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which option is used to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) to
provide one-to-one mapping between local and global addresses?
A. Outside source static
B. Overload
C. Inside source static
D. PAT
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What is the valid range assigned to a client during a TCP connection?
A. 20 - 25
B. 443 - 1000
C. 1023 - 2024
D. 40000 - 65535
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset
Management Professional (SAM) Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience,
testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to
become a ServiceNow SAM Implementation Specialist.
Exam Purpose The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset
Management (SAM) Professional exam certifies that a successful candidate has the
skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration,
implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow SAM Professional application.
Exam Audience The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset
Management (SAM) Professional exam is available to ServiceNow customers,
partners, sales engineers, employees, and others interested in becoming a
ServiceNow SAM Certified Implementation Specialist.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Software
Asset Management Professional exam. Information provided in the following
ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• Software Asset Management Professional Fundamentals - *Upon completion, the
candidate will be eligible to collect a voucher for the Certified Implementation
Specialist – Software Asset Management
Professional exam. Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following training course(s) and
certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model (On-demand)
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals (On-demand)
• Scripting in ServiceNow Fundamentals
• System Administration Advanced
• Discovery Fundamentals
• Software Asset Management (SAM) Getting Started (On-demand)
• Entitlement Import Basics for Software Asset Management (SAM) (On-demand)
• Discovery Basics for Software Asset Management (SAM) (On-demand)
• Software Asset Management (SAM) Reconciliation Troubleshooting (On-demand)
• SAM: Integration with SCCM for Reclamation and Distribution (On-demand)
• SAM Certification Test Prep (On-demand)
Additional Recommended Experience
• Six (6) months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment
projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least two ServiceNow deployment projects
• General familiarity with industry concepts, terminology, acronyms, and
initialisms
Exam Scope Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics
and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills
measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each
domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of
exam content. Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Software Asset Core Overview &
Fundamentals
• Software Asset Management Basics
• Process Architecture
• Application Introduction and Data Integrity – Attributes and Sources for the
Data
• Importing Data
• Software Discovery and Normalization
• Content Service
Operational Integration of Software Processes • Contract and Change Management
• Service Catalog and Procurement
• Software Remediation
Exam Registration Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor
website using a voucher obtained by completing the Software Asset Management
Professional Fundamentals training prerequisite.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam.
This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own
system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure
The exam consists of 60 questions. For each question on the examination, there
are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response
options and selects the most correct answer to the question.
Multiple Choice (single answer) For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four
possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options
and selects the one response that most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply) For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four
possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be
selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects
ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions
have two or more correct responses.
Exam Results After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is
immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are
not provided to the candidate.
QUESTION 1 A new Windows operating system machine blueprint is created and is ready to
be added to a new service catalog.
Which step must be performed for the catalog item to be visible to business
users?
A. Entitle the blueprint with all appropriate actions.
B. Publish the blueprint.
C. Entitle a business user to add the blueprint to the catalog.
D. Add the catalog item to the business group’s reservation.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A vRealize Orchestrator administrator is tasked with creating a workflow
that processes sensitive information
that is subject to auditing. All workflow messages must be stored in the
vRealize Orchestrator database.
How can the administrator ensure that all log messages generated by the workflow
are stored in the database?
A. Configure a DEBUG level for the vRealize Orchestrator server.
B. Use System.log() when printing out messages.
C. Configure SQL plugin to write to the database directly.
D. Use Server.log() when printing out messages.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A system administrator created a tenant with URL name “fin” for the finance
team. The fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the appliance is
vra.rainpole.local.
What is the correct URL to log in to the finance tenant?
A. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/fin
B. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/finance
C. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/fin
D. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/finance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What can be used in custom forms to prevent a user from entering too large a
value (such as too much memory for a virtual machine)?
A. Constraints for a field
B. Regular expression for a field
C. Quotas for a field
D. Limitations for a field
Citrix Education is pleased to announce the availability of the next
generation Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V) certification
based on Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7. Be among the first to take and pass
the NEW 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and
Advanced Configurations exam.
With the release of the 1Y0-403 exam, we’re also announcing the discontinuation
of the English version of the 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15
Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations exam effective June 30, 2020.
What does this mean for you?
Individuals pursuing the Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V)
certification will have the option of selecting one of two exams to validate
their knowledge, skills and experience until June 30, 2020.
Option 1: Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V)
certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-403 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and
Advanced Configurations.
Option 2: Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V)
certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-402 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment, Design and
Advanced Configurations.
Effective June 30, 2020, with the discontinuation of the English version of the
1Y0-402 exam, Option 1 will be the only valid path to attain the CCE – V
certification.
For individuals who already hold the CCE – V certification, you can update your
certification and stay current by taking and passing only one exam — 1Y0-403 —
or by attending the instructor-led training course CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps
and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration. Please note that
the discontinuation of the 1Y0-402 exam will have no effect on your current CCE
– V certification status. Your CCE – V certification will remain valid for three
years from the date attained.
QUESTION 1 Scenario: Currently, the user interface for a Citrix Apps and Desktops
environment is presented in English,
but a planned on-premises expansion in Poland will support 100 new users with a
requirement to use all Polish interfaces.
Two constraints were identified by a Citrix Architect:
Network bandwidth is low and unstable.
Network latency is higher than 300 ms to the existing Site.
How should the architect deploy Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops for these
users?
A. Install a StoreFront server in Poland.
B. Implement Citrix Cloud Gateway in Europe.
C. Add a Satellite Zone to the existing Site.
D. Create a new Site in Poland.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A planning document for deploying a new Citrix Virtual Apps and
Desktops Site specifies that it will
be created with 1 Site and different zones ini each of 3 regions. The IT team
expects that each zone will host
825 concurrent user sessions, with no more than 28 concurrent session launches.
What is the minimum acceptable Site-to-Site bandwidth required between the
Primary Zone and a Satellite Zone?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 200 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 8 Gbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Architect designed an active-passive Citrix Virtual Apps
and Desktops environment, where
the passive data center serves as the disaster recovery (DR) data center for all
users. Twelve items have been configured:
Citrix ADC Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) to provide single URL direction
to the active data center.
GSLB has health monitors configured for the load balanced servers.
Citrix Gateways are on both data centers.
Citrix ADC load balancing occurs for StoreFront and Delivery Controller XML
services.
A single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site exists.
Four Delivery Controllers are members of the Site.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Primary Zone in the active data
center.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Satellite Zone in the passive data
center.
SQL is deployed in the active data center.
Local Host Cache is enabled.
Two StoreFront servers are deployed in each data center aggregating resources
from the Delivery
Controllers in the respective data center.
Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines are deployed in both data centers and
configured to register with
Delivery Controllers in their zone.
What would happen if the Delivery Controllers in the primary data center were
turned off?
A. VDA machines from the primary data center would register with the Delivery
Controllers in the passive data center.
B. StoreFront in the primary data center would still be able to launch sessions.
C. GSLB will start redirecting connections to the secondary data center.
D. GSLB will NOT identify that the Delivery Controllers are down and sessions
CANNOT launch.
To earn the CCBA designation, candidates must: Complete a minimum of 3,750 hours of Business Analysis work experience in
the last 7 years.
Within these 3750 minimum hours required, a minimum of 900 hours must be
completed in each of 2 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas OR, a minimum of
500 hours must be completed in each of 4 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas.
Complete a minimum of 21 hours of Professional Development within the last 4
years.
Provide references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CCBA Competencies
Is CCBA for you? The CCBA certificate is for:
Individuals with an ECBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
QUESTION 1 You are currently working on creating the activity list for an initiative in
your organization. What characteristic must be assigned to each task in your
task list?
A. Procurement needs
B. Risk level
C. Unique number
D. Roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Each task in the task list should have a unique number to identify the specific
task and it should have a description of what the task is.
Answer: B is incorrect. The risk level is not associated with the task list.
Answer: D is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are not included directly in
the task list.
Answer: A is incorrect. Procurement needs are not included in the task list.
QUESTION 2 Shelly is the business analyst for her organization and she's working with
Thomas to review the business
requirements. They are discussing the identified requirements, how the
requirements will transition to the
operations, and the longevity of the solution. Thomas is concerned that the
identified requirements may not
map to the desired future state of the organization. What business analysis task
is Shelly facilitating in this scenario?
A. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition
B. Requirements quality assurance
C. Validate requirements
D. Stakeholder management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shelly and Thomas are performing the validate requirements task. This task
helps to ensure that the
requirements map to the business goals and objectives, resolve the issue, and
predict the longevity of the requirements to satisfy business needs.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is not a business analysis task called
requirements quality assurance.
Answer: A is incorrect. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition is a task to
ensure that the requirements are
clear and precise enough to create tests and inspect to know that the work has
been completed.
Answer: D is incorrect. Stakeholder management is the management of
stakeholders' issues, conflicts,
queries, concerns, threats, and perceived threats about the requirements.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following are documented approaches to the business analysis
work? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
A. Deming's Quality Circle
B. Lean
C. Six Sigma
D. Waterfall approach
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The waterfall approach, lean, and Six Sigma are the valid answer for business
analysis approaches.
Answer: A is incorrect. Deming's Quality Circle describes the quality management
approach of plan, do, check, and act. This isn't a business analysis approach.
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with the
stakeholders to prioritize the
requirements. The stakeholders are concerned about the financial impact of the
requirements should some of
them fail during the implementation. You would like to rank the risk tolerance
of the stakeholders based on
their comments about the solution and the requirements. The following are the
three categories of risk
tolerance associated with the stakeholders except for which one?
A. Neutrality
B. Mitigation
C. Risk-seeking
D. Risk-aversion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mitigation is a risk response that seeks to lower the risk's probability
and/or impact. It is not one of the three categories of risk tolerance.
QUESTION 5 Tracy is a business analyst for her organization and she's gathered and
identified the needed requirements for
the solution scope. What must Tracy do before she can begin managing the
requirements? Choose the best answer.
A. Tracy must decompose the requirements in WBS.
B. Tracy must create cost-benefits analysis of each requirement to manage the
benefits first.
C. Tracy must identify roles, responsibilities, and owners of the requirements
to fully manage the requirements.
D. Tracy must communicate the requirements to the stakeholders for their consent
and approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Requirements must be communicated before they are managed. Tracy must
communicate the requirements to
the stakeholders for their consent and approval before managing the
requirements.
Answer: A is incorrect. Before Tracy decomposes the requirements, she should
have the approval of the stakeholders.
Answer: B is incorrect. To begin managing the requirements, Tracy needs the
approval and consent of the stakeholders.
Answer: C is incorrect. This isn't a valid statement, as the best thing to do is
to gain the approval of the stakeholders first. Certkingdom
Review, Certkingdom
IIBA CCBA PDF Best IIBA
CCBACertification, IIBA
CCBA Training at certkingdom.com
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance
Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content
coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation
Specialist – Risk and Compliance certified.
Exam Purpose The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam certifies
that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute
to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of ServiceNow Risk, Policy
and Compliance, and Audit Management applications.
Exam Audience The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam is
available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in
becoming a ServiceNow Risk and Compliance
Implementer.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and
Compliance exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training
course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• GRC Fundamentals
• Audit Management Implementation
• Risk and Compliance Implementation -
*Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a voucher code to register for
the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam.
Recommended Knowledge & Education ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals (ILT)
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals (eLearning)
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation (ILT)
• CIS-Risk and Compliance Exam Prep
Performance Analytics Essentials • Service Portal Fundamentals
Additional Recommended Experience
• Six (6) months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment
projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least two ServiceNow deployment projects
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms
Exam Scope Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics
and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
Implementation Planning • Use Cases
• Implementation Team
• Implementation Checklist
• Personas, Groups, and Roles
Policy and Compliance Implementation Approach • Policy and Compliance Record Lifecycles
• Policy and Compliance Architecture
• Policy Management Lifecycle
Exam Registration Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor
website using a voucher obtained by completing the Risk and Compliance
Implementation training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the
prerequisite training path is nontransferable and provides the candidate
eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and
Compliance exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam.
This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own
system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure The exam consists of approximately (45) questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately
calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not
provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again
up to three more times for a cost of $150.
Sample Item #1:
Which of the following are scoped applications in GRC? (Select all that apply)
A. GRC Profiles
B. Risk
C. Compliance and Audit Management
D. Global
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #2:
Who should be on the core implementation team for a GRC implementation? (Select
all that apply)
A. Platform experts
B. Internal audit
C. External audit
D. Risk Assessor
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #3:
The Entity Filter record requires which mandatory field to be completed?
A. Filter date
B. Filter name
C. Conditions
D. Table
Answer: D
Sample Item #4:
Which of the following are tables in the Policy and Compliance scope? (Select
all that apply)
A. Issue
B. Control
C. Risk
D. Citation
Answer: B & D
Sample Item #5:
Which of the following are tables in the Risk scope? (Select all that apply)
A. Issue
B. Risk Framework
C. Risk Statement
D. Citation
Answer: B & C
Sample Item #6:
Which plugin is required for continuous monitoring? (Select all that apply)
A. Configuration Compliance
B. Vulnerability Response
C. UCF Integration
D. Performance Analytics GRC
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #7:
Which roles are installed with Audit Management? (Select all that apply)
A. Audit Admin
B. GRC User
C. GRC Reviewer
D. External Auditor
Exam Title: Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Implementation
Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-996
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 70
Passing Score: 68%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C
Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Certified Implementation
Specialist Exam Preparation
Recommended Training
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam. Review Exam Topics
Customer Information
Maintain and Manage Customer Information
Billing Maintain Bill Segments
Complete Bills
Payments Manage Payments
Manage Overpayment and Payment Distribution
Monitor Overdue Debt Configure and Manage Credit & Collections and Overdue Processes
Manage Payment Arrangements and Pay Plans
Service Points & Install Events Explain the concept of an install event and the relationship between devices
and service points
VEE Explain the difference between critical validations and validation rules,
including when critical validations are executed and when validation rules are
executed.
Explain the VEE process, including the data prepration steps that are executed
immediately prior to entering VEE processing,w hat data is prassed into the VEE
engine and what happens during VEE execution for a given IMD
Configure new VEE groups that contain base packate VEE rules and apply a VEE
group to a device or device type
Configure eligibility criteria and criteria field value retrieval algorithms to
determine if a rule should be applied.
Expalin the categories of IMD exceptions (generated by VEE rules)
Usage Explain the usage calculation process
Explain the relationships between usage transactions and usage subscriptions
Use the Get Scalar Details usage rule to retrieve scalar measurements for scalar
internal measuring components
Operational Device Management
Explain the role of assets and components
Explain the specifications and their relationship to assets
Rates Manage and Apply Rates
Apply Proration
Apply Bill Factors
Adjustments
Configure and Manage Adjustments
Devices & Measuring Components Explain the concept of a measuring component and the strcutures that
represent them
Explain the relationship between devices and measureing components
Explain the different types of measuring components
Configure a device type
Configure a new measuring component type
Configure a new device config type and associate a measuring component to a
device
Measurements Explain the differences between initial measurements, final measurements,
and usage
Explain the high level process of loading measurements through to calculating
usage
Explain the derived values and how they are associated with the final
measurements
Configure a new derive value algorithm
Explain three types of IMDs and the differences between them
Explain the IMD exception statuses and the Automatic Retry functionality
Usage Subscriptions
Explain the concept of usage subscriptions
Explain the possible relationships between measuring components, service points
and usage subscriptions
Design and set up the admin data required to effectively configure a usage
subscription
Fieldwork and Service Order Management Explain the concept of a Service Order ("Orchrestrator") Activity
Explain the concept of Service Order Children Activities
QUESTION 1 Critical validation rules verify the integrity of the initial measurement
data (IMD). If an implementation needs to add new critical validations, where
would you configure them?
A. as new lifecycle algorithms on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
B. in the pre-processing algorithm of the IMD Seeder BO (Dl-IMDSeeder)
C. as options on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
D. in the schema of the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
E. in the validation algorithm on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which three statements are true about usage subscriptions? (Choose three.)
A. A usage subscription can have either parent or child service points.
B. A usage subscription can be configured to include only a portion of a service
point usage.
C. A usage subscription can have many service points.
D. Usage subscriptions are always related to an account.
E. A usage subscription can have only one service point.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3 On which three entities can proration be disabled? (Choose three.)
A. Calculation Rule Business Object
B. Bill Factor
C. Calculation Rule
D. Rate Version Calculation Group
E. Rate Schedule
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 4 The base package usage transaction business object is represented by
D2-UsageTransaction. The usage
calculation engine or process drives the specifics of the usage to be calculated
on this business object.
Based on this, which three configuration areas will have an impact on the usage
calculation process? (Choose three.)
A. VEE rule
B. TOU map
C. Usage Rule
D. Factor Override
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5 Which describes derived values and their relationship with Final
Measurements?
A. Final Measurements can have multiple derived values, which represent other
values for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
B. Derived values can have multiple Final Measurements, which represent other
values for the same Initial Measurement Date/Time.
C. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents an
alternative for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
D. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents the Initial
Measurement for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
