The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, more at http://www.certkingdom.com
Exam Name: Nokia Cloud Packet Core
Exam Number: 4A0-M05
Credit Towards Certifications:
Nokia Cloud Packet Core Expert
Nokia Service Routing Architect
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Required Passing Score: 80%
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45
minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 40
Language: English
For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course
objectives and modules in the course outline.
Course Overview This hands-on instructor-led course explores the Nokia Cloud Packet Core
(CPC) Solution. It starts with an in-depth review of the Cloud Packet Core
architecture and its cloud native characteristics. Virtualization and optimal
deployment options for the CPC are presented as well as performing life cycle
operations with CloudBand Application Manager (CBAM). The virtual network
function (VNF) architecture of the Nokia Cloud Mobility Manager (CMM), the Cloud
Mobile Gateway (CMG), and the Smart Plan Suite (SPS) are all addressed. The
course concludes with an exploration of how to evolve to 5G.
Credit Towards Certification Nokia Cloud Packet Core Expert
Nokia Service Routing Architect
Course Number TT01365-V-1809
Recommended Prerequisites Nokia Mobile Gateways
Nokia Mobility Manager
Course Objectives After completing the course, students should be able to:
Describe the architecture of the Nokia CPC and its cloud native design
capabilities
Illustrate the network function virtualization platform used for CPC
Describe the management architecture of the CPC
Explain key virtualization concepts
Use CBAM to deploy CMM and CMG
Explain the VNF architecture of the Nokia CMM
Explain the VNF architecture of the Nokia CMG
Describe the virtual machine (VM) components of the CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the IP networks required by the CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the dimensioning, scaling, resiliency, and lifecycle management of the
CMM and CMG VNFs
Describe the architecture and the components of the Nokia Smart Plan Suite (SPS)
VNF
Identify the different 5G deployment options
Illustrate how the Nokia CPC architecture supports the evolution towards 5G
Describe 5G non-standalone option 3
Verify the health of CPC VNFs including their stacks, VMs, and networks
Troubleshoot virtualization infrastructure using CLI commands
Configure the CMM and CMG on a Nokia CPC for an LTE Attach
Troubleshoot LTE Attach failure scenarios using UE call traces and logs
Perform Life-Cycle Management (LCM) operations on CMM and CMG with CBAM
Course Modules
• Module 1 – Introduction to Cloud Packet Core
• Module 2 – CPC Virtualization
• Module 3 – Cloud Mobility Manager
• Module 4 – Cloud Mobile Gateway
• Module 5 – Smart Plan Suite
• Module 6 – Evolution to a 5G Core
• Module 7 – CPC Troubleshooting and Analytics
QUESTION: 1
Which of the following management tools performs the function of virtual infrastructure manager (VIM) in the
CPC NFV architecture?
A. NetAct
B. CloudBand Infrastructure Software (CBIS)
C. Operations Support System (OSS)
D. Network Service Platform (NSP)
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements about the network service platform (NSP) is FALSE?
A. Acts as an element management system (EMS) for CPC components
B. Performs fault, performance, and security management
C. Has a northbound interface with the NFV orchestrator (NFVO)
D. Allows monitoring events associated with the NFV environment
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following network elements is implemented by the Nokia CPC?
A. Policy and charging rules function (PCRF)
B. Equipment Identity Registration (EIR)
C. Application Function (AF)
D. eNodeB
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 4
What is the main benefit of splitting the core network into separate user-plane and control-plane nodes?
A. Independent configuration of user-plane and control-plane nodes
B. Independent scaling of user-plane and control-plane nodes
C. User of a shared data repository for storing user states.
D. Creation of networks with isolated properties over a common infrastructure
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following statements about SR-IOV is FALSE?
A. VMs using OVS and SR-IOV can be instantiated on the same compute node.
B. SR-IOV offers comparable performance to non-visualized hardware.
C. The VM must be attached to the PF to achieve highest performance.
D. Using SR-IOV restricts VM mobility.
Duration: 1 hour and 30 minutes
Number of questions: 40 (Multiple Choice)
Pass mark: 65%
Open book: No
Electronic equipment allowed: No
Level: Advanced
Available languages: English, Chinese, Japanese, Brazilian Portuguese, German,
Spanish, French, Dutch
EXIN DevOps Professional This EXIN DevOps Professional certification has been designed to give IT
professionals background knowledge and understanding of essential DevOps
practices. Created as a stepping-stone to the EXIN DevOps Master certification,
this certification looks at the Three Ways, the good habits of change control,
and maintaining security compliance.
Who is this certification for? DevOps Professional is ideal for professionals who are working in a DevOps
environment. This includes DevOps engineers, Agile scrum practitioners, Lean IT
professionals, software or website developers and project managers.
Main subjects DevOps Adoption
The First Way: Flow
The Second Way: Feedback
The Third Way: Continual Learning and Experimentation
Information Security and Change Management
QUESTION 1 An IT architecture is characterized as monolithic and rigidly bound.
What difficulty with adopting DevOps practices can be expected?
A. Clearly defining the boundaries of the IT systems
B. Defining areas of responsibility for each DevOps team
C. Maintaining the increasingly complex architecture
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 DevOps benefits from a ‘start-up spirit’ to focus on innovation and
entrepreneurship.
Which attitude to change fits with that start-up spirit in DevOps?
A. Authoritarian
B. Autonomous
C. Conservatism
D. Experiments
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Commercial off-the-shelf software (COTS) has both advantages and limitations
for businesses.
What is true about COTS?
A. COTS supports continuous development with its fast implementation
B. COTS will save the business time and money, by reducing development time
C. Depending on the type of COTS used, the possibility of customization is
limited
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 DevOps implies that not only the boundary between Development and Operations
must disappear.
Which other boundary must also disappear?
A. The boundary between Development and marketing
B. The boundary between IT management and the rest of the IT department
C. The boundary between the finance department and Development
D. The boundary between the HR department and Operations
E. The boundary between the IT department and the business
Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about Dell EMC
Information Storage and Management (DEA-1TT4) Certification exam. This study
guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for
items on the DEA-1TT4 Dell EMC Information Storage Management exam. The Sample
Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions
and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of
an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual
Dell EMC DECA-ISM certification exam.
The Dell EMC Information Storage and Management certification is mainly targeted
to those candidates who want to build their career in Information Storage and
Management domain. The Dell EMC Certified Associate - Information Storage and
Management (DECA-ISM) exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental
knowledge and proven skills in the area of Dell EMC DECA-ISM.
Dell EMC Information Storage and Management Exam Summary: Exam Name Dell EMC Certified Associate - Information Storage and Management
(DECA-ISM)
Exam Code DEA-1TT4
Exam Price $230 (USD)
Duration 90 mins
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 60%
Books / Training Information Storage Management (ISM) V4 - OnDemand Course
(ES131STG00799)
Information Storage Management V4 -Classroom (ES111STG00802)
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions Dell EMC Information Storage and Management Sample Questions
Practice Exam Dell EMC DEA-1TT4 Certification Practice Exam
Dell EMC DEA-1TT4 Exam Syllabus Topics:
Modern Data Center Infrastructure - Describe the data classification,
elements of a data center, key characteristics of a data center, and key
technologies driving digital transformation - Explain the cloud characteristics, cloud service models, and cloud
deployment models
- Explain the key characteristics of big data, components of a big data
analytics solution, Internet of Things (IoT), machine learning, and artificial
intelligence (AI)
- Describe the building blocks of a modern data center
- Describe a compute system, storage, connectivity in a data center,
application, and options to build a modern data center
Storage Networking Technologies - Describe Storage Area Network (SAN), FC
architecture, FC topologies, zoning, and virtualization in FC SAN - Describe TCP/IP, IP SAN, iSCSI protocol, components, connectivity,
addressing, discovery domains, and VLAN
- Explain the components and connectivities of FCIP and FCoE
Storage Systems - Explain the components of an intelligent storage system,
RAID, erasure coding, data access methods, scale-up and scale-out architectures - Explain the components of block-based storage system, storage
provisioning, and storage tiering mechanisms
- Explain the NAS components and architecture, NAS file sharing methods, and
file-level virtualization and tiering
- Describe object-based storage device components, functions, operations, and
unified storage architecture
- Describe software-defined storage attributes, architecture, functions of the
control plane, software-defined extensibility, and software-defined networking
functionalities
Backup, Archive, and Replication - Describe the information availability
measurements and key fault tolerance techniques - Explain backup granularity, architecture, backup targets, operations, and
backup methods
- Describe data deduplication and data archiving solutions architecture
- Describe replication uses, and replication and migration techniques
Security and Management - Describe the information security goals,
terminologies, various security domains, and threats to a storage infrastructure - Explain key security controls to protect the storage infrastructure
- Describe the storage infrastructure management functions and processes 16%
To ensure success in Dell EMC DECA-ISM certification exam, we recommend
authorized training course, practice test and hands-on experience to prepare for
Dell EMC Information Storage Management (DEA-1TT4) exam. QUESTION 1
What is an accurate statement about Governance?
A. Restrict access to certain users
B. Ensure removal of security risks
C. Authorize policy-making decisions
D. Demonstrate adherence to polices
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24
hours, from Monday through Friday.
However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:
• Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM
• Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM
• Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM
• Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM
What is the MTTR of Port 4?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 28 hours
D. 38 hours
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?
A. Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
B. Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
C. Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
D. Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system,
data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is
protected by the configuration?
QUESTION 1
How should Smart Folders be identified and recognized?
A. Smart Folders should be recognized by their type smf:smartFolder
B. Smart Folders should be recognized by parent-child type used smf:contains
C. Smart Folders should be recognized by their aspect smf:smartFolder
D. Smart Folders should be recognized by the special node reference used.
E. Smart Folders cannot be recognized as they are not different from any other cm:folder.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.alfresco.com/6.0/references/sf-tech-faqs.html
QUESTION 2
If an object is moved to a different folder, what will happen to the node’s security permissions?
A. It will inherit the ACL from the new parent folder.
B. It will inherit the ACL from the user who is moving it.
C. It will inherit the system wide ACL.
D. It will keep its old ACL.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not an Alfresco-supplied subsystem category?
A. Dictionary.
B. Authentication.
C. Audit.
D. Search.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.alfresco.com/community5.0/concepts/subsystem-categories.html
QUESTION 4
When testing an Alfresco Content Services extension under high levels of concurrency, you notice that some
transactions are failing due to locking issues with the database. What is an appropriate way to resolve this?
A. Manually unlock the offending records and start the testing again.
B. Directly use Alfresco’s database connection pool and write your own SQL.
C. Use the RetryingTransactionHelper to retry code that fails due to locking.
D. Rewrite the queries used by your application to reduce the chance of the lock.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does it mean when it is said in Solr indexing that the index is “eventually consistent”?
A. The index will only be consistent after a server restart.
B. The index will become consistent when there are no more transactions to index.
C. The index becomes consistent once a day when the index job runs.
D. The index can only be consistent when the Lucene index job eventually runs.
QUESTION 2 What are two steps a developer must do to set up a key-based authentication
in order to transfer files to the
Adobe-hosted SFTP? (Choose two.)
A. Request Adobe support to whitelist IP addresses
B. Upload a private key in the external account configuration.
C. Upload a public key in the external account configuration.
D. Provide the public key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP
server.
E. Provide the private key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP
server.
QUESTION 3 Every week, new data files are uploaded to the Adobe-hosted SFTP server.
What is the maximum time limit that files remain on the SFTP server?
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 25 days
Answer: B
Reference:
https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/campaign-classic/using/getting-started/importing-andexportingdata/sftp-server-usage.html
QUESTION 4 Which two component categories are used to filter data in a report? (Choose
two.)
A. Population
B. Metrics
C. Period
D. Segments
E. Targets
VCS-322 Administration of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x
Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all
certification exams target customers in an administrative role and cover core
elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation,
configuration, deployment, product administration, management, day-to-day
maintenance, and basic troubleshooting.
The certified end user will demonstrate an understanding of the installation,
configuration, deployment, administration, management, maintenance, and
troubleshooting of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x. This understanding serves as a
basis of knowledge for proactively managing Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x in an
enterprise environment to improve a company's ability to retain and protect
corporate information.
Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS)
certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified
Professional (VCP) certification in Archiving and eDiscovery.
Exam Details
# of Questions: 75 - 85
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 69%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)
Suggested Preparation
Recommended Courses: Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x: Administration I
Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x: Implementation and Deployment
Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended
that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual
classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that
attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification
exam.
Recommended preparation steps: Exam Objectives (PDF): Download and review exam objectives to understand the
scope of topics covered in the certification exam.
Attend recommended training classes listed above.
Study Guide (PDF): Review the study guide, which maps key lessons and topics
from the associated training course(s) to the exam objectives of the
certification exam.
Gain hands-on experience with the product. Three to six months experience
working with Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x in a production or lab environment is
recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample
exam.
In addition, you should be familiar with the following supporting products,
skills, and technologies: Microsoft Windows Server administration and maintenance
Microsoft Exchange
Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
Microsoft SQL Server
QUESTION 1 When a user is enabled for archiving, an e-mail is sent from the Enterprise
Vault system mailbox.
Which permissions must be granted to the Vault Service Account for this feature
to work properly?
A. Log on as a service
B. Receive As
C. log on remotely
D. Send As
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 An administrator needs to remove an Index Server from an Index Server Group
and place it in another group.
When can this process be completed?
A. during the processing time of the Index Administration task
B. before archived items have been indexed
C. when the Indexing Service is stopped
D. after indexes have been put into Backup mode
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which step(s) are necessary to install Message Queueing (MSMQ) in
preparation for configuring a Windows cluster?
A. use Computer Manager to manually move C:\windows\system32\msmq to a shared
cluster disk resource
B. use Windows Failover Cluster Manager to add the Message Queuing resource; in
the properties add the MSMQ disk to the resource list
C. use the Component Services snap-in to manually move C:\windows\system32\msmq
to a shared cluster disk resource
D. use Windows Failover Cluster Manager to add the MSMQ resource; add
C:\windows\system32\msmq to the resource list and convert it to a shared disk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which two archive types are supported by the Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x
Move Archive function? (Select two.)
A. File System Archiving (FSA) archives
B. Exchange Mailbox archives
C. Exchange public folder archives
D. Shared archives
E. Exchange Journal archives
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which process is responsible for shortcut processing after an Archive Move
to a different Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x site?
A. Indexing Service on the source Enterprise Vault server
B. Indexing Service on the destination Enterprise Vault server
C. Archiving Task on the destination Enterprise Vault server
D. Archiving Task on the source Enterprise Vault server
The LPIC-3 certification is the culmination of LPI’s multi-level professional
certification program. LPIC-3 is designed for the enterprise-level Linux
professional and represents the highest level of professional,
distribution-neutral Linux certification within the industry. Three separate
LPIC-3 specialty certifications are available. Passing any one of the three
exams will grant the LPIC-3 certification for that specialty.
The LPIC-3 303: Security certification covers the administration of Linux
systems enterprise-wide with an emphasis on security.
Current Version: 2.0 (Exam code 303-200)
Objectives: 303-200
Prerequisites: The candidate must have an active LPIC-2 certification to receive
LPIC-3 certification, but the LPIC-2 and LPIC-3 exams may be taken in any order
Requirements: Passing the 303 exam
Validity Period: 5 years
Languages: English, Japanese
QUESTION 1
Which of the following circumstances prevent the usage of container based virtualization? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. More than one container requires access to block devices available in the host system.
B. Remote access via SSH is required to all containers.
C. Each container needs to have its own user accounts and user groups.
D. Administrators of containers must be able to install customized Linux kernels.
E. Different operating systems are to be used within containers on the same virtualization host.
QUESTION 2
When migrating a physical machine to a full virtualized machine, which of the following properties should be
expected to change from the perspective of the guest operating system? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The user accounts within the guest operating system.
B. The properties of the CPU and other hardware devices.
C. The MAC address of the network interfaces.
D. The version of the guest operating system.
E. The software and applications installed on the guest system.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements are true regarding IaaS computing instances? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. Creation of new instances can be automated by using scripts or APIs and service interfaces.
B. The root file system of a computing instance is always persistent and can be accessed after the instance is
destroyed.
C. Each and every user of an IaaS cloud has exactly one computing instance.
D. Once created, computing instances are seldom deleted in order to ensure the accessibility of the instance's
data.
E. Instances may be created when needed and destroyed when they become obsolete.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies is the most important component of IaaS clouds?
A. Database replication
B. DNS delegation
C. Emulation
D. Mandatory Access Control
E. Virtualization
Answer: E
Section: Virtualization
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are true regarding Xen domains? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Fully virtualized and paravirtualized domains are managed using the same tools and commands.
B. Xen domains of all types require virtualization extensions in the host system's CPU.
C. All fully virtualized domains are called 'Dom0' while all paravirtualized domains are called 'DomU'.
D. Both paravirtualized and fully virtualized domains may run on the same host system.
E. Paravirtualized domains are significantly slower than fully virtualized domains.
Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge,
all certification exams target customers in an administrative role, cover core
elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation,
configuration, deployment, management & administration, and basic
troubleshooting.
This program consists of a technical exam at a product/version level that
validates that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary
to successfully administer Veritas InfoScale Availability 7.3 for UNIX/Linux
Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS)
certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified
Professional (VCP) certification in Storage Management and High Availability for
UNIX.
Exam Details # of Questions: 75 - 85
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 71%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)
Recommended Course: Veritas InfoScale Availability 7.3 for UNIX/Linux: Administration
Veritas InfoScale Availability 7.3 for UNIX/Linux: Advanced Administration I
Veritas InfoScale Availability 7.3 for UNIX/Linux: Advanced Administration II
Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended
that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual
classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that
attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification
exam.
Recommended preparation steps: Exam Preparation Guide (PDF): Download and review the guide to understand
the scope of topics covered in the certification exam and how they map to the
key lessons and topics in the associated training course(s).
Attend recommended training classes listed above.
Gain hands-on experience with the product. Six to twelve months experience
working with InfoScale Availability and/or Veritas Cluster Server for UNIX/Linux
in a production or lab environment is recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample
exam
In addition, you should be familiar with the following product documentation
and websites: InfoScale Product Documentation
High Availability Configuration in AWS Cloud using InfoScale Enterprise
InfoScale Product Page
InfoScale Technical Support
InfoScale Updates, Patches and News
Veritas Communities
High Availability Configuration in AWS Cloud using InfoScale Enterprise
Recommended hands-on experience (real world or virtual): Recommended 9-12 months experience working with InfoScale Availability in a
production or lab environment.
Recommended 3-6 months experience working with InfoScale Storage in a production
or lab environment.
Recommended knowledge of UNIX/Linux system and network administration.
Recommended knowledge of storage virtualization and high availability concepts.
Preparing the environment for Veritas InfoScale Availability
Installing and configuring Veritas InfoScale Availability
Managing cluster communications and data protection mechanisms
Configuring service groups, resources, resource dependencies, agents, and
resource types
Configuring failover policies and service group dependencies
Validating the Veritas InfoScale Availability implementation
Performing basic troubleshooting
Configuring global clustering
Managing and administering InfoScale Availability using the Command Line and
Veritas InfoScale Operations Manager (VIOM)
Deploy, configure, and maintain Veritas InfoScale Availability
Determine how components external to the cluster may impact high availability
Monitor and manage clusters
Understand high availability concepts, components, and architectures
Understand the impact of modifying cluster configurations
Understand user’s and access in a cluster environment
QUESTION 1
An administrator has removed a node from the cluster. After system maintenance, the administrator notices
that the remaining cluster nodes will no longer form a cluster.
Which file will be used by the cluster at startup to determine the number of nodes required to form a cluster?
A. /etc/gabtab
B. /etc/llttab
C. /etc/vxfentab
D. /etc/llthosts
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which behavior should an administrator expect when performing the Veritas InfoScale Availability online
upgrade process using the installer?
A. The cluster remains online and the kernel processes are swapped during the upgrade process.
B. The cluster is taken offline one node at a time during the package upgrade.
C. The cluster is taken offline during the upgrade process, but the applications stay online.
D. The cluster remains online during the update process, but the service groups are offline.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which command allows an administrator to halt the cluster without affecting any of the running services in an
active Veritas Cluster Server environment?
A. hastop
B. hastop –all
C. hastop –all –force
D. hastop –all –freeze
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
The hastatus command shows a service group in the AutoDisabled state, and Veritas Cluster Server is
unsuccessful in bringing the service group online automatically.
Which command can the administrator use to reset the AutoDisabled attribute?
A. hagrp –autoenable -sys
B. hagrp –forceonline -sys
C. hagrp –enable -sys -auto
D. hagrp –modify AutoDisabled 0
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
When is the resstatechange trigger unable to detect a resource state transition?
A. when a resource is faulted
B. when a resource is brought online
C. when a resource is enabled
D. when a resource fault is cleared
Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 35
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam consists of 4 sections described below.
Customer Environment, Requirements, and Plans 33% Describe a customer's hardware and software environment.
Describe customer operational contraints, including power, cooling, personnel,
knowledge level, and service level requirements.
Identify disaster recovery and high availability requirements.
Identify customer performance requirements, including throughput and latency.
Identify the customer's capacity and growth requirements and the impact on total
cost.
Product Information 30% Given a scenario, describe the difference(s) among various storage media and
align them to a requirement of TCA, performance, and upgradability.
Identify the difference(s) in cost, performance, and reliability among IBM
storage solutions.
Describe IBM's competitive advantages.
Given a scenario, describe how IBM enterprise storage products help clients
solve data and device management issues through application efficiency and
integration.
Given a scenario, explain alternatives to the existing environment to provide
additional functionality.
Application of Resources and Tools 20% Given a scenario, evaluate which tool(s) to use based upon key applications,
performance requirements, customer pain-points, capacity and growth
requirements, and the impact on total cost.
Identify uses of IBM maintenance, IBM websites, IBM tools, and IBM processes.
Given a scenario, identify high-level steps to integrate new solutions into an
existing systems environment.
Containers, Clouds, and Analytics 17% Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables containers and clouds.
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio enables analytics.
Identify ways the IBM storage porfolio provides security.
Overview PartnerWorld Code: C0005007
Replaces PW Code: 23003306
Status: Live
The IBM Storage Technical Specialist consults with customers to gather and
understand customer requirements and position the correct solutions. The
specialist uses available resources to design the solution. The specialist has a
broad knowledge of the features, functions, and benefits of IBM storage
solutions and the IBM storage portfolio, including disk, tape, storage
management software, and software defined storage. Successful candidates
understand competitive offerings used in the enterprise segment.
The IBM Storage technologies and solutions included in this exam are: IBM Flash Storage
All flash solution concepts
Hybrid storage solutions including IBM System Storage DS8800 and IBM FlashSystem
Software-defined storage including the IBM Spectrum Suite; IBM Spectrum
Accelerate, IBM Spectrum Control, IBM Storage Insights, IBM Spectrum Virtualize
and IBM Spectrum Scale
IBM tape solutions and technologies
IBM Spectrum Protect
IBM Spectrum Protect Plus
IBM Spectrum Archive
Cloud Object Storage
SAN/Networks
VersaStack and converged infrastructure
General knowledge of hybrid cloud and analytics concepts and the IBM Storwize
family of products is recommended.
This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance:
Determine product positioning
Gather customer requirements
Identify and engage correct resources
Identify competitors
Provide the technical details for a TCO analysis
Present the IBM storage product line to the customer
Articulate features and benefits of IBM storage solutions
Read and understand a configuration based on customer requirements
Develop basic technology topologies and architectural designs
Present the configuration to the customer
Initiate the TDA process
Identify the correct tool to size the solution for performance
Identify open system, mainframe and IBM i connectivity requirements
Provide information gathered during customer interaction for post-installation
This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: Respond to an RFP within the enterprise storage scope
Mitigate competitors
Demonstrate deep technical knowledge
Complete detailed design of the total solution
Conduct the IBM Technical Delivery Assessment (TDA)
Identify risks associated with the proposed solution
Plan implementation of the solution as part of the pre-install TDA
Submit an RPQ/SCORE request
Conduct a demonstration of the storage solution
This specialist should be familiar with the following resources: eConfig
TCOnow!
IBM PartnerWorld
Sizing tools such as Disk Magic, Capacity Magic and Batch Magic
IBM Comprestimator Utility
Storage Consolidation Evaluation tool hosted by Alinean
System Storage Interoperability Center (SSIC)
Cognitive Storage Analytics
IBM Economics Study
IBM Data Reduction Estimator Tool
Recommended Prerequisite Skills Minimum 12 months of direct technical storage experience, with six months
experience with IBM designated storage products.
QUESTION 1
A customer with a highly virtualized VMware environment and several bare-metal Oracle servers is interested
in data protection and replication between its on-site and IBM cloud environments.
Which technology should be discussed?
A. IBM Spectrum Protect Extended Edition
B. IBM Spectrum Protect for Virtual Environments
C. IBM Spectrum Protect Snapshot
D. IBM Spectrum Protect Plus
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/downloads/cas/L9MD4MEZ
QUESTION 2
A customer has an existing IBM XIV Gen3 solution with 3 TB drives and nine modules. While performance is
acceptable, the customer wants to increase the performance of small-block reads. The current nine modules
are running at 60% of capacity.
Which solution should the technical specialist recommend?
A. Add an IBM FlashSystem 900 as a separate pool.
B. Add the SSD caching option on five modules.
C. Add the SSD caching option on all nine modules.
D. Add three more data modules to improve performance.
QUESTION 3
A customer has IBM and NetApp block and file storage. The customer is interested in reducing storage costs
and optimizing its data center through intelligent capacity planning, storage reclamation, storage tiering, and
performance metrics.
Which IBM SDS offering should the technical specialist discuss with the customer?
A. IBM Spectrum Protect
B. IBM Spectrum Control
C. IBM Spectrum Insights Pro
D. IBM Virtual Storage Center
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSQRB8/com.ibm.spectrum.si.doc/
prd_ovw_versions.html
QUESTION 4
A customer has a requirement for 250,000 IOPS and 200TB of capacity. The customer requires IBM SSR
code upgrades at no additional charge.
Which solution should the technical specialist recommend to the customer?
A. IBM FlashSystem A9000 with 3.6TB MicroLatency modules.
B. IBM FlashSystem V9000 with IBM Storwize V5010 with 1.2TB drives
C. IBM Storwize V7000 with 1.2TB drives and 800 GB SSDs
D. IBM DS8886 with 1.2TB drives and HPFE
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which exclusive feature of the IBM FlashSystem 9100 is a technical advantage over competitive storage
arrays?
A. 3D NAND SATA SSD drives
B. NVMe SSD drives
C. XL Flash modules
D. FlashCore modules
Exam Title: Oracle Global Trade Management 2018 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-995
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 76
Passing Score: 70%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against Oracle Global Trade
Management Cloud 6.4.3/18C.
Global Trade Management (GTM) Product Overview Describe GTM Deployment Options
Configure User Role and Setup
Configure Screensets and Menus
Explain Domain Management in GTM
Explain Automation Agents in GTM
Explain Integration Methodolodiges in GTM
Restricted Party Screening Explain Restricted Party Screening
Configure Restricted Party Screening
Execute Restricted Party Screening for Party
Configure Agents for Restricted Party Screening on Party and Transaction
Landed Cost Simulator Explain Landed Cost Simulator
Configure Value Sets, Value Formulas, and Expressions
Run a Landed Cost Analysis
Trade Compliance Configure Compliance Rules
Describe Compliance Algorithm used for Compliance Rule Screening
Configure Compliance Rule Screening on Trade Transaction
Configure and Execute a Policy for Trade Transaction
Customs Management Explain Customs Declaration Process
Configure Declaration Creation and Aggregation
Configure Duty and Tax Calculation
Configure Filing Generation and Transmission Handling
Global Trade Intelligence Explain Global Trade Intelligence
Enable Access to Global Trade Intelligence
Build Reports and Dashboards
Trade Master Data and Transaction Creation
Explain Trade Master Data Management in GTM
Create Trade Item, Party, and Registration in GTM
Set up Data Configuration to Create Trade Transaction from OTM
Configure Content Integration
Product Classification Process Explain Product Classification process
Configure and set up Download of Product Classification Codes
Configure and assign Product Classification or Item Templates
Configure Recurring Process to Detect Invalid Product Classification
Configue Lookup Product Classification on Trade Transaction
License Management
Explain License Management
Set up License Categories, Types, and Codes
Create License in GTM
Configure License Assignment on Trade Transaction
Document Management Explain Document Management
Configure Document Determination
Generate and Preview Documents Required on Transaction
Manage Subscribers and Reviewers on Documents
QUESTION 1
Which two options are true about Classification Approval? (Choose two.)
A. It is for one user to review and approve the Item Classification that another user performed.
B. It is a mandatory process.
C. It is an optional process.
D. It is for one user to both create and approve the Product Classification Code details, including Description,
and so on.
Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Certification Computer hacking forensic investigation is the process of detecting hacking
attacks and properly extracting evidence to report the crime and conduct audits
to prevent future attacks.
Computer crime in today’s cyber world is on the rise. Computer Investigation
techniques are being used by police, government and corporate entities globally
and many of them turn to EC-Council for our Computer Hacking Forensic
Investigator CHFI Certification Program.
Computer Security and Computer investigations are changing terms. More tools are
invented daily for conducting Computer Investigations, be it computer crime,
digital forensics, computer investigations, or even standard computer data
recovery. The tools and techniques covered in EC-Council’s CHFI program will
prepare the student to conduct computer investigations using groundbreaking
digital forensics technologies.
Computer forensics is simply the application of computer investigation and
analysis techniques in the interests of determining potential legal evidence.
Evidence might be sought in a wide range of computer crime or misuse, including
but not limited to theft of trade secrets, theft of or destruction of
intellectual property, and fraud. CHFI investigators can draw on an array of
methods for discovering data that resides in a computer system, or recovering
deleted, encrypted, or damaged file information known as computer data recovery.
The purpose of the CHFI credential is to: Validate the candidate’s skills to identify an intruder’s footprints and to
properly gather the necessary evidence to prosecute in the court of law.
About the Exam Number of Questions: 150
Test Duration: 4 Hours
Test Format: Multiple Choice
Test Delivery: ECC EXAM
Exam Prefix: 312-49 (ECC EXAM)
Passing Score In order to maintain the high integrity of our certifications exams,
EC-Council Exams are provided in multiple forms (I.e. different question banks).
Each form is carefully analyzed through beta testing with an appropriate sample
group under the purview of a committee of subject matter experts that ensure
that each of our exams not only has academic rigor but also has “real world”
applicability. We also have a process to determine the difficulty rating of each
question. The individual rating then contributes to an overall “Cut Score” for
each exam form. To ensure each form has equal assessment standards, cut scores
are set on a “per exam form” basis. Depending on which exam form is challenged,
cut scores can range from 60% to 85%. QUESTION 1
When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a Who is lookup to
request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute authorizes this
phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?
A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Item 2If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer?
A. A sheepdip coordinates several honeypots
B. A sheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot
C. A sheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking.
D. A sheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time you find it
until the case is closed or goes to court?
A. rules of evidence
B. law of probability
C. chain of custody
D. policy of separation
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file?
A. 128
B. 64
C. 32
D. 16
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You are working on a thesis for your doctorate degree in Computer Science. Your thesis is based on HTML,
DHTML, and other web-based languages and how they have evolved over the years.
You navigate to archive. org and view the HTML code of news.com. You then navigate to the current
news.com website and copy over the source code. While searching through the code, you come across
something abnormal: What have you found?
A. Web bug
B. CGI code
C. Trojan.downloader
D. Blind bug
QUESTION: 1
What is the major security concern associated with company employees working to
public areas offices, and how does HP address it?
A. phishing attacks, which can be available with HP Sure Click
B. visual hacking which can be prevented with HP sure View
C. virus attacks, which can be lessened with HP Sure Run
D. malware attacks, which can be mitigate with HP Sure Start
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2 How does HP meet the "everything as a service" demand of rapid urbanization?
A. with HP DaaS (Device as a Service)
B. with HP STS (Smart Technologies Service)
C. with HP CPaaS (Computing Power as a Service)
D. with HP CSaaS (Cloud Solutions as a Service)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 What does the HP Image Assistant Gen3 do?
A. It updates and maintains software and security settings across a fileet of
PCs and HP Enterprise printers.
B. It monitors key processes, alerts both users and IT of any changes, and
restarts them automatically.
C. It helps with real-time malware protection using deep neural nets.
D. It helps develop and maintain an up-to-date software image that has the
latest patches and upgrades.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 4 Your healthcare customer has overburdened IT staff and inadequate IT
resources, but they have a
growing need to migrate their devices from Microsoft Windows 7 to Windows 10.
Which
A. HP DaaS explanation is correct and relevant to this customer?
B. HP DaaS. which is a solution that combines hardware and premium same day
support, proactive management, and services for every stage of the device
lifecycle
C. HP DaaS. which is a complete solution that includes migrating from Microsoft
Windows 7 to Windows 10 on all existing PCs
D. HP DaaS, which provides security and additional software to monitor the
health of your PC. with reduced costs as all reporting is done automatically
E. HP DaaS. which is a complete solution that combines hardware, support,
proactive management, and services for every stage of the device lifecycle to
optimize IT assets and resources
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Which HP product has HP Sure View Gen3 as an option?
A. HP ProBook 400 G6 series Notebook PC
B. HPPro0ne600G4Ai0PC
C. HPEliteOne800G5AiOPC
D. HPChromebook14G5
Description The “SAP Certified Development Professional - SAP Commerce Cloud 6.7
Developer" certification exam validates that the candidate possesses the
required level of knowledge to work effectively with the SAP Commerce Cloud
Suite 6.7. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall
understanding and in-depth technical skills to participate as a member of a
project team. The scope of SAP Commerce Cloud knowledge in the courses stated
within "Topic Areas" is narrower than the scope of knowledge checked in the
certification questions. In addition to the courses stated as covering the
topics within "Topic Areas" , as preparation for this certification exam,
candidates must also study the SAP Commerce Cloud Suite 6 documentation located
at: help.hybris.com/. In order to access the documentation, you must be an SAP
customer or partner and follow the instructions on https://crowd1.hybris.com/crowdcontrol/signup
to request a wiki account. Three years of practical experience on SAP Commerce
Cloud is a further requirement as preparation for this certification exam.
Notes To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on
experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your
ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test
(no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).
Topic Areas Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this
certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute
a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics,
items, weighting) at any time.
Customer Experience > 12% Explain the CMS items hierarchy, configure the data model of base store,
website, warehouse, Point of Sale and their relations; create new and configure
existing CMS restrictions, explain their evaluation, and new CMS component
types.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Smart Edit
WCMS Module
CMS2 Data Model Overview
Personaliz.based on smartEdit
Basecommerce extension
Commerce and Accelerator > 12% Create new AddOn, OCC webservice, promotion, order splitting strategy, CMS
navigation bar; configure accelerator based storefront and product converters;
extend payment commands and identify payment integration points, and explain
internationalization and request handling in Accelerator, as well as Hot Folders
transformation.
Orders 8% - 12% Create and start a business process; explain the fulfilment process and its
subprocesess, shopping cart handling including various checkout scenarios, and
identify features available in Assisted Service Module and available Customer
Service operations in SAP Hybris Commerce suite.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Order Management Overview
Orders
Assisted Service Module
Channel
Backoffice and Backoffice Cockpits Modifications 8% - 12% Describe how to create a new backoffice application and its widgets using
the Backoffice framework, and introduce legacy cockpits modifications into
hybris Accelerator.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Cockpit framework
Backoffice framework
Dynamic Forms
Search and Navigation 8% - 12% Create new Solr index, facet, facet range, and explain Solr topology;
configure autosuggestion, keywords, stopwords, synonyms, hero products and boost
rules.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Search And Navigation Module
Commerce Search Extension
Platform Features 8% - 12% Explain how to use events, advanced features of impex, spring contexts in
SAP Hybris Commerce suite and how cronjobs and cluster communication work.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
ServiceLayer Architecture
Impex API
The Cron Job Service
Cluster
Platform Basics 8% - 12% Explain the concepts of system initialization, update, essential and project
data, sessions handling, and extensions structures; configure platform start and
change its build procedure; identify caching behavior and model interceptors and
how transactions work in SAP Hybris Commerce Suite.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Platform
ServiceLayer
Initialization and update
Hooks for initialization&update
Data Modeling 8% - 12% Model new data types and extend existing ones including localized attributes
and enumeration; configure indices and deployments, and identify how types are
stored in database; create advanced FlexibleSearch queries, and determine the
consequences of using variants, category variants and classification attributes.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Data Modeling
Type System
FlexibleSearch
PCM Basics and Price Modeling < 8% Explain price calculation, retrieval logic, media objects handling, and
configure synchronization jobs; create a workflow.
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Price factory
Media
Workflow & Collaboration Module
Synchronizing Catalogs
User Management < 8%
Configure user rights and search restrictions; switch user context in a given
code, and explain B2B hierarchy
HY400 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
HY410 (SAP COMMERCE CLOUD SUITE 6.7)
Users in the Hybris Platform
Search restrictions
Commerce organization
General Information
Exam Preparation IMPORTANT: All SAP consultant certifications are now also possible in the
cloud! To register, simply enter booking code CER006 in the Certification Hub.
With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams of
choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be
agreed individually.Those of you who prefer to get certified on-site at an SAP
training center instead can still do so. Official dates for the courses are
listed below on the right.
Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We
define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You
can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will
be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.
Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for
upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed
across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The
total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is
never exceeded when unscored items are used.
Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several
years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.
For more information refer to our Take your SAP Certification Exams and our FAQs.
Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement
Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams.
An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards
certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments.
Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a
growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair
means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on
test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to
help to protect the credibility of your certification status.
Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to
understand the testing experience.
Question: 1 Where can back-office users trigger synchronization? (2)
A. In the Hybris Administration Console.
B. In the product perspective within the Product Cockpit.
C. In the Page View perspective within the WCMS Cockpit.
D. In the Commerce Search perspective witin BackOffice.
Answer: B, C
Question: 2 You are creating a new product catalog. Product data and product images are
loaded from two
different external sources. Which strategies could you use to set up the product
catalog versioning
system in SAP Hybris Commerce? (2)
A. Load each data source into separate online product catalog versions of the
same catalog.
B. Load each data source into separate staged product catalog versioons, then
synchronize both staged '—' product catalog versions with a single online
product catalog version.
C. Load each data source into a content catalog version, then synchronize the
content catlog version with '—' aproduct catalog version.
D. Load both data sources into a single, staged product catalog version, then
synchronize the staged catalog '—' version with teh online product catalog
version.
Answer: B, D
Question: 3 In which user interface do you create a new variant of an existing base
product? (2)
A. Product Cockpit.
B. WCMS Cockpit.
C. BackOffice Administration Cockpit.
D. Hybris Administration Console.
Answer: A, C
Question: 4 Which Hybris items do you use to model a B2B company? (3)
A. Units.
B. Divisions.
C. Budgets.
D. Departments.
E. Cost centers.
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 5 How do you add a property to a set of products? (2)
A. Create a new facet and include the new required property.
B. Create a new classification category and feature, and assign it to a catalog
category.
C. Create a new catalog version and include all products wiht the new required
property.
D. Create a sub type of the product item type and include the new required
property.
GISCI Geospatial Core Technical Knowledge Exam The GISCI Geospatial Core Technical Knowledge ExamR is a groundbreaking
development in the geospatial profession, software-agnostic, based upon a job
analysis from a four-year experience level, informed by the GIS&T Body of
Knowledge, guided by the Geospatial Technology Competency Model (GTCM), and
centered upon the six key knowledge areas shown elsewhere on these pages. It was
developed by GISPs for the GISP Certification.
The Exam Answering 75% of questions correct is passing.
The Exam is 4 hours and contains between 175 questions and 195 questions. 100 of
those questions will be scored.
The Exam questions not scored will be evaluated for use as scored questions in
the future.
The Exam questions will come from the following Knowledge Categories:
Conceptual Foundations (12%)
Cartography & Visualization (14%)
GIS Design Aspects & Data Modeling (29%)
GIS Analytical Methods (17%)
Data Manipulation (15%)
Geospatial Data (13%)
For more information on these areas, consult the Exam Candidate Manual or the
UCGIS-produced GIS&T Body of Knowledge for specific references from each
Knowledge Area.
Current Exam pass rates have reached 60%.
Costs GISP Portfolio Review (Ethics, Education, Experience, Contributions): $100
GISCI Geospatial Core Technical Exam Fee: $250 for North American location, $
300 for an International location
Exam Application Fee (one-time): $ 100
All GISPs and all recertifying GISPs will be subject to an annual maintenance
fee of $95/year, payable on the 1st anniversary of initial GISP Certification,
or upon recertification approval.
Active GISPs looking to recertify do not have to take the Exam. Those whose
certification has expired and have exceeded the one-year grace period will be
required to pass the Exam in order to be reinstated. QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Keystroke logging
C. Mail bombing
D. ARP poisoning
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following refers to encrypted text?
A. Plaintext
B. Cookies
C. Hypertext
D. Ciphertext
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following are the benefits of information classification for an organization?
A. It helps identify which information is the most sensitive or vital to an organization.
B. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
C. It helps identify which protections apply to which information.
D. It helps reduce the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
Answer: A,C
QUESTION: 4
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those
resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following are methods used for authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Smart card
B. Biometrics
C. Username and password
D. Magnetic stripe card
Number of questions: 62
Number of questions to pass: 43
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V2 is a person who can clearly
explain the benefits and underlying concepts of DevOps, and has practical
experience of implementing DevOps processes and solutions for clients. They can
advise stakeholders on how to adopt DevOps, how to overcome barriers, and how to
realize the business benefits of DevOps. They can also demonstrate how the
leading industry, Open and IBM solution offerings can help customers realize
these benefits.
Key areas of competency include: Clearly articulate the benefits of DevOps for driving business agility and
continuous innovation.
Advise stakeholders on how to remove barriers to the adoption of DevOps, and
implement organizational change and continual process improvement.
Have a deep working experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery,
collaboration, innovation) practices.
Experience of application development lifecycle, operational methods, SCM,
version control and common tooling for cloud-ready and cloud-native application
development.
Working knowledge of development, test automation and virtualization,
deployment, and operational best practices.
Understand the IBM DevOps reference architecture patterns, and can apply them to
DevOps solutions.
Recommend the best approach, tooling and consumption models (on premises /
public / SaaS) across the IBM solution portfolio (and leading open toolchain
components).
Recommended Prerequisite Skills
The following qualifications are requirements for success: Advanced knowledge of DevOps principles, practices, and development
approaches
Advanced experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery,
collaboration, innovation) practices.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps Reference Architecture and associated
adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of tooling and consumption models (on-premises / public / SaaS)
from the IBM DevOps portfolio.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps solution offerings.
DevOps Principles 16% Define DevOps
Explain and identify delivery pipelines
Explain Lean Principles
Explain strategies of DevOps
ITIL and DevOps
DevOps Practices 18% Explain implications of the 12 Factor App design principles for DevOps
Explain DevOps practices
Describe Collaborative Development
Describe Continuous Integration
Describe Continuous Delivery
Describe Continuous Deployment
Describe Continuous Availability / Service Management / Monitoring
Describe how to measure DevOps
Describe Continuous Security / Security for DevOps
Describe DevOps on-premise and on the cloud and explain the differences in how
each are handled
Adopting DevOps 16% Describe Business and IT drivers of DevOps
Explain the barriers and roadmaps for DevOps adoption
Explain how to adopt DevOps in a Multi-speed IT environment
Illustrate the cultural and organizational differences when transforming from
traditional to DevOps processes
Describe the key architectural decisions made to adopt DevOps
DevOps Architecture & Methods 17% Describe the IBM Cloud Garage Method phases
Describe IBM DevOps Reference Architecture
Describe IBM Service Management Reference Architecture
Explain DevOps for Cloud Ready
Explain DevOps for Microservices
Explain DevOps for Cloud Native
Explain DevOps for serverless applications
Explain Cloud Service Management Operations
Explain the benefits of IBM Design Thinking for DevOps process adoption
DevOps Toolchain 18% Identify tools for Build & Deploy and their uses
Identify other common tools and their uses
Describe common container and container orchestration technologies
Explain the applicability of open standards for DevOps
Describe the concepts of Software Defined Environments
Explain the role of service mesh in managing and securing microservices
Identify the tools used for logging, monitoring, event management, and
performance testing
IBM Solutions for DevOps 15% Describe the IBM solutions for the Culture, Discover, and Envision phase in
DevOps.
Describe the IBM solutions for the Build and Run phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the Manage and Learn phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for Security in DevOps
Status: Live An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V2 is a person who can clearly
explain the benefits and underlying concepts of DevOps, and has practical
experience of implementing DevOps processes and solutions for clients. They can
advise stakeholders on how to adopt DevOps, how to overcome barriers, and how to
realize the business benefits of DevOps. They can also demonstrate how the
leading industry, Open and IBM solution offerings can help customers realize
these benefits.
Key areas of competency include: Clearly articulate the benefits of DevOps for driving business agility and
continuous innovation.
Advise stakeholders on how to remove barriers to the adoption of DevOps, and
implement organizational change and continual process improvement.
Have a deep working experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery,
collaboration, innovation) practices.
Experience of application development lifecycle, operational methods, SCM,
version control and common tooling for cloud-ready and cloud-native application
development.
Working knowledge of development, test automation and virtualization,
deployment, and operational best practices.
Understand the IBM DevOps reference architecture patterns, and can apply them to
DevOps solutions.
Recommend the best approach, tooling and consumption models (on premises /
public / SaaS) across the IBM solution portfolio (and leading open toolchain
components).
Recommended Prerequisite Skills
The following qualifications are requirements for success: Advanced knowledge of DevOps principles, practices, and development
approaches
Advanced experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery,
collaboration, innovation) practices.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps Reference Architecture and associated
adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of tooling and consumption models (on-premises / public / SaaS)
from the IBM DevOps portfolio.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps solution offerings.
1. HC-019-305-ENU HCS-Pre-Sales-Contact Center-ENU Exam
This article introduces the HC-019-305-ENU HCS-Pre-Sales-Contact Center-ENU exam
outline, the other exam outline can be obtained in related training materials or
Huawei Online Learning Website:http://support.huawei.com/learning .
Certification Exam Code Exam Title Duration Pass Score/ Total Score
HCS-Pre-Sales-Contact Center HC-019-305-ENU HCS-Pre-Sales-Contact Center-ENU
(Huawei Certified Pre-sales Specialist-Contact Center-ENU) 90 min 60/100
Product Sales Basic 1.Market and trends of Contact Center
2.Huawei Contact Center highlights
3.Specifications of main components such as ACD
4.Basic applications
5.Successful cases
Product Sales In-depth 1.CC typical network
2.Basic quotation rules of CC
Note: The content mentioned in this article is just a general exam guide; the exam
may also contain more related content that is not mentioned here.
2.3 Recommended Training
Huawei Contact Center Pre-Sales Specialist Certification Training.
1. Huawei H19-300 HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network(Security)-ENU Exam This
article introduces the H19-300 HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network (Security)-ENU
exam outline, the other exam outline can be obtained in related
training materials or Huawei Online Learning
Website:http://support.huawei.com/learning .
Certification Exam Code Exam Title Duration Pass Score/ Total Score HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network(Security) H19-300 HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network (Security)-ENU (Huawei Certified Pre-sales Specialist-IP Network (Security)-ENU) 90 min 60/100
2. H19-300 HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network(Security)-ENU Exam Outline 2.1 Exam Content
The HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network(Security) exam cover Huawei USG(unified
security gateway) products, NIP intrusion prevention system ,SVN
professional VPN access gateways , Anti-DDoS products pre-sales
training and so on.
2.2 Knowledge points 1.Huawei security products scale division and market position 2.the Huawei security products and other venders corresponding relationships 3.the Huawei security products construction and core competitiveness 4.the Huawei security products technical special characteristics and detail specification 5.the Huawei security products typical network solution 6.Huawei security products model application case and market share
Note: The
content mentioned in this article is just a general exam guide; the
exam may also contain more related content that is not mentioned here.
2.3 Recommended Training Huawei IP Network(Security) Pre-sales Specialist Certification Training
