CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 vs. PT0-002: What’s the Difference?

 

IT certifications show employers that candidates have the knowledge and skills they need to do the job, and they help IT pros advance in their careers. As cybersecurity has become a critical function, cybersecurity certifications are among the most popular IT certifications globally.

The CompTIA PenTest+ certification is a vendor-neutral, internationally targeted validation of intermediate-level penetration testing (or pen testing) knowledge and skills. It focuses on the latest pen testing techniques, attack surfaces, vulnerability management, post-delivery and compliance tasks.

The skills covered by CompTIA PenTest+ help companies comply with regulations, such as PCI-DSS and NIST 800-53 Risk Management Framework (RMF), which require pen tests, vulnerability assessments and reports. CompTIA PenTest+ is approved under the Department of Defense (DoD) Directive 8140/8570.01-M and under ANSI/ISO standard 17024.

IT Jobs Related to CompTIA PenTest+
The next version of CompTIA PenTest+ (PT0-002) is slated to launch in October 2021. CompTIA updates its certifications every three years to keep up with evolving technology, so your skills are relevant and you stay up to date on the latest technologies.

When CompTIA updates exams, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) from the industry participate in workshops to write and review the content, ensuring that the exam domains, objectives and questions validate the skills needed on the job today.

Cybersecurity experts from the following companies contributed to the update of CompTIA PenTest+:
RxSense
John Hopkins University Applied Physics Laboratory
U.S. Army
Target Corp.
General Dynamics IT (GDIT)
Ricoh

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 vs PT0-002
CompTIA PenTest+ addresses the latest trends, techniques and attack surfaces – covering the core and intermediate skills in penetration testing and vulnerability management, ensuring high performance on the job. Let’s break down some of the highlights.

CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Domains
The exam domains covered in CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 and PT0-002 are not vastly different, as they are still relevant to the job roles, but you will see some slight changes.

We changed the name of exam domain 2.0 from Information Gathering and Vulnerability Identification to Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning.
We also swapped the order of two domains – what was formerly 5.0 Reporting and Communication is now 4.0, (with the same name), and what was formerly 4.0 Penetration Testing Tools is now 5.0 Tools and Code Analysis.

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-002 Exam Domains
1. Planning and Scoping (14%)
2. Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning (22%)
3. Attacks and Exploits (30%)
4. Reporting and Communication (18%)
5. Tools and Code Analysis (16%)

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 Equivalency Exam Domain

How It Applies to the Job

1.0 Planning and Scoping
Includes updated techniques emphasizing governance, risk and compliance concepts, scoping and organizational/customer requirements and demonstrating an ethical hacking mindset
Pen testers can be held criminally liable when operating without ethics or proper approvals. Pen testing is required for compliance to regulations such as PCI-DSS and the NIST 800-53 RMF.

2.0 Information Gathering and Vulnerability Scanning
Includes updated skills on performing vulnerability scanning and passive/active reconnaissance, vulnerability management as well as analyzing the results of the reconnaissance exercise
Automation is required for modern vulnerability management to counteract automated attacks. Organizations must efficiently mitigate vulnerabilities, avoiding unnecessary dangers to operations.

3.0 Attacks and Exploits
Includes updated approaches to expanded attack surfaces; researching social engineering techniques; performing network, wireless, cloud and application-based attacks; and post-exploitation techniques

Updated skills are needed to secure multiple attack surfaces; 87% of CompTIA-certified IT pros already work in expansive hybrid environments (both on-premises and in the cloud), and 93% work in multi-cloud environments.

4.0 Reporting and Communication
Expanded to focus on the importance of reporting and communication in an increased regulatory environment during the pen testing process through analysis and appropriate remediation recommendations
Communication is critical for the penetration testing lifecycle because collaboration is essential for identifying and managing vulnerabilities. Reporting is especially important for complying with regulations.

5.0 Tools and Code Analysis
Includes updated concepts of identifying scripts in software deployments, analyzing a script or code sample and explaining use cases of pen test tools (Note: Scripting and coding is not required)
Exposure to different scripts and code samples provides an expanded toolbox to help pen testers progress through their career. Pen testers work with scripting more as they advance in their careers.

How to Train for CompTIA PenTest+
It may seem like CompTIA PenTest+ covers a lot of ground, but don’t worry, we’ve got your back. CompTIA offers training solutions, including study guides, online self-study tools and instructor-led courses that are designed to cover what you need to know for your CompTIA exam. No other content library covers all the exam objectives for all certifications.

CompTIA training solutions help you prepare for your CompTIA certification exam with confidence. Whether you are just starting to prepare and need comprehensive training with CompTIA CertMaster Learn, want to apply your knowledge hands-on with CompTIA Labs or need a final review with CompTIA CertMaster Practice, CompTIA's online training tools have you covered.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands will allow a penetration tester to permit a shell script to be executed by the file owner?

A. chmod u+x script.sh
B. chmod u+e script.sh
C. chmod o+e script.sh
D. chmod o+x script.sh

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A penetration tester gains access to a system and establishes persistence, and then run the following commands:
Which of the following actions is the tester MOST likely performing?

A. Redirecting Bash history to /dev/null
B. Making a copy of the user’s Bash history to further enumeration
C. Covering tracks by clearing the Bash history
D. Making decoy files on the system to confuse incident responders

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A compliance-based penetration test is primarily concerned with:

A. obtaining PII from the protected network.
B. bypassing protection on edge devices.
C. determining the efficacy of a specific set of security standards.
D. obtaining specific information from the protected network.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester is explaining the MITRE ATT&CK framework to a company’s chief legal counsel.
Which of the following would the tester MOST likely describe as a benefit of the framework?

A. Understanding the tactics of a security intrusion can help disrupt them.
B. Scripts that are part of the framework can be imported directly into SIEM tools.
C. The methodology can be used to estimate the cost of an incident better.
D. The framework is static and ensures stability of a security program over time.

Answer: A

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CIS-PPM Certified Implementation Specialist - Project Portfolio Management (PPM) Exam

 

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Project Portfolio Management (PPM) Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become a ServiceNow Certified PPM Implementation Specialist.

Exam Purpose
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Project Portfolio Management (PPM) exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of ServiceNow PPM applications.

Exam Audience
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist Project Portfolio Management (PPM) exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow PPM Certified Implementation Specialist.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Project Portfolio Management exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals (ILT)
• ServiceNow Get Started with Now Create (On Demand)
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation (ILT)
• Get Started with Innovation Management
• Project Portfolio Management (PPM) Fundamentals
• Performance Analytics (PA) Essentials
• Project Portfolio Management (PPM) Implementation Simulator
• ServiceNow Project Portfolio Management (PPM) Implementation - *Upon completion, the candidate will be eligible to collect a voucher for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Project Portfolio Management exam. Voucher may require payment.

Click here to explore the learning path.
Recommended Knowledge & Education

ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• ServiceNow Product Documentation Site
• ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation

Additional Recommended Experience
• General familiarity with general industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms
• Six months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.

The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content.

1 PPM Implementation Overview 2%
• Overview of PPM
• PPM Business Outcome Model
• PPM Personas
• Now Create Methodology

2 PPM Application Overview 22%
• Plugins
• Tables & Data Models
• Properties & Preferences
• User & Role Administration
• Group Administration

3 Idea & Demand Configuration 21%
• Configuring Idea
• Idea to Task Process Flow
• Idea to Demand
• Defining Stakeholders
• Assessments
• Demand Visualization Capabilities

4 Project Configuration 21%
• Project Templates
• Project Workspace
• Planning Console
• Investment Portal
• Status Reports
• RIDAC

5 PPM Teamspace Configuration 2%
• Architecture
• Roles & Tables
• Teamspace Configuration

6 Resource Management Configuration 17%
• Resource Allocation Workbench
• State, Schedules, Calendars & Reports

7 PPM Financials 8%
• Cost Types & Fiscal Calendar
• Financial Baseline & Planning Grid
• Multi-Currency
• Rate Model
• Investment Funding

8 Time Tracking Configuration 5%
• Generate a Time Card
• Categories & Policies
• Rate Types

9 PPM Performance Analytics, Reporting & Dashboards 2%
• Performance Analytics
• Reporting
• Dashboards

---

QUESTION 1
Which of the following checks to see if the assessable record exists for the demand and creates an assessable record if none exists?

A. Validate Assessment Metrics for Demand
B. Auto Business Rule for Assessments
C. Update Demand State
D. Create OnDemand Assessment

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
 

---

QUESTION 2
Projects and which other artifact can be linked to either a program, a portfolio, both, or neither.

A. Demands
B. Test Cases
C. Resources
D. Stories

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
 

---

QUESTION 3
If Scenario Planning for PPM is installed, a portfolio manager can access the Portfolio Planning Workbench by
navigating to which of the following? (Choose two.)

A. Project module
B. Program Workbench
C. Portfolio Planning related link
D. Portfolio Planning Workbench module

Answer: C,D

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Google Looker Business Analyst Exam

Looker Business Analyst
A Looker Business Analyst uses Looker daily to create and curate content, develop reports, and use visualizations to represent data. A Business Analyst should be able to use Looker to query data and create actionable metrics, validate data accuracy, and apply procedural concepts to identify error sources. A Business Analyst can build Looker dashboards to meet business requirements, deliver reports for data consumers, and use appropriate visualizations to meet analysis requirements. A Business Analyst can apply procedural concepts to curate content for intuitive navigation and control it for security.

The Looker Business Analyst exam assesses your knowledge of:
Scheduling and sharing Looks and dashboards
Table calculations and Looker expressions
Customize and advanced filters
The impacts of pivoting
Best practices around designing dashboards
The fundamentals of caching


About this certification exam
Length: 100 minutes
Registration fee: $250
Languages: English
Exam format: Multiple choice and multiple select taken remotely or in person at a test center. Locate a test center near you.

Exam delivery method:
1. Take the online-proctored exam from a remote location, review the online testing requirements.
2. Take the onsite-proctored exam at a testing center, locate a test center near you.

Prerequisites: None
Recommended experience: Business analysts with 5+ months of experience using Looker for report development, data visualization, and dashboard best practices.

Exam overview

Step 1: Understand what's on the exam
The exam guide contains a complete list of topics that may be included on the exam. Review the exam guide to determine if your knowledge aligns with the topics on the exam.

Looker Business Analyst

Certification exam guide
A Looker Business Analyst uses Looker daily to create and curate content, develop reports, and use visualizations to represent data. A Business Analyst should be able to use Looker to query data and create actionable metrics, validate data accuracy, and apply procedural concepts to identify error sources. A Business Analyst can build Looker dashboards to meet business requirements, deliver reports for data consumers, and use appropriate visualizations to meet analysis requirements. A Business Analyst can apply procedural concepts to curate content for intuitive navigation, and control it for security.

Section 1: Analyze

1.1 Use Looker Explores to query data and create actionable metrics in a given scenario. For example:
Utilize requirements and create queries using fields (e.g., dimensions, measures, filters, pivots)
Determine additional metrics needed and construct custom metrics using table calculations
Determine how to utilize filters (e.g., standard filters, matches advanced filters, and custom filters)
Determine which fields to use merge results for joining across different Explores and data sources

1.2 Use Looker to validate data accuracy in a given scenario. For example:
Investigate data results to determine accuracy (e.g., using SQL, drilling, A/B testing, comparisons)
Investigate discrepancies by viewing row-level data using Explores (e.g., review individual dimension values that make up the result of a measure)

1.3 Apply procedural concepts to identify error sources. For example:
Utilize Looker's features to determine the cause of the error (e.g., read error message to get context)
Interpret error message to identify the source (e.g., caused by the database, query, LookML code, permissions, visualizations)

Section 2: Build
2.1 Build dashboards to meet business requirements. For example:

Construct dashboards to meet requirements (e.g., using dashboard filters, merged results)
Apply procedural concepts to design impactful dashboards (e.g., storytelling, tile organization, use of text tiles, amount of data per dashboard)

2.2 Deliver reports for data consumers. For example:
Determine appropriate report delivery methods (e.g., file format, destination, delivery cadence, recipients, scheduling, sending, downloading, test delivery)
Determine appropriate download configurations (e.g., no option for unlimited downloads, table calculations, pivots, lack of permissions, database limitations)

2.3 Use visualization types to meet analysis requirements in a given scenario. For example:
Select appropriate visualizations to illustrate data results (e.g., bar, line, scatter, column, pie)
Determine which visualization settings to use (e.g., conditional formatting, subtotals, double axis, value label format using spreadsheet functions, grouping)

Section 3: Curate

3.1 Apply procedural concepts to curate content for intuitive navigation. For example:
Determine appropriate setups for folders and boards (e.g., structures, subfolders, hierarchy)
Apply naming conventions to identify folders, boards, or other content for users (e.g., clear titles, description fields, naming folders, content, and conventions)

3.2 Apply procedural concepts to control content access for security. For example:
Utilize appropriate Explores based on audience to prevent data leak (e.g., restricting sensitive data to specific users)
Assign folders and boards permissions to organize content based on user groups

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MS-101 Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Exam updated on November 24, 2021

 

The content of this exam was updated on November 24, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security
Languages: English, Japanese
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: implement modern device services; implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management; and manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance.

Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on November 24, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.
Implement modern device services (40-45%)
Implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management (20-25%)
Manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance (35-40%)

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least Exchange, SharePoint, Teams, Windows 10 deployment. Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Implement modern device services (40-45%)

Plan device management
 plan device monitoring
 plan Microsoft Endpoint Manager implementation and integration with Azure AD
 plan co-management between Endpoint Configuration Manager and Intune
 plan for configuration profiles

Manage device compliance
 plan for device compliance
 plan for attack surface reduction
 configure security baselines
 configure device compliance policy
 plan and configure conditional access policies

Plan for apps
 create and configure Microsoft Store for Business
 plan app deployment
 plan for mobile application management (MAM)

Plan Windows 10 deployment
 plan for Windows as a Service (WaaS)
 plan for managing Windows quality and feature updates
 plan Windows 10 Enterprise deployment methods
 analyze upgrade readiness for Windows 10 by using services such as Desktop Analytics
 evaluate and deploy additional Windows 10 Enterprise security features

Enroll devices
 plan for device join or device registration to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
 plan for manual and automated device enrollment into Intune
 enable device enrollment into Intune

Implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management (20-25%)

Manage security reports and alerts
 evaluate and manage Microsoft Office 365 tenant security by using Secure Score
 manage incident investigation
 review and manage Microsoft 365 security alerts

Plan and implement threat protection with Microsoft 365 Defender
 plan Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
 design Microsoft Defender for Office 365 policies
 implement Microsoft Defender for Identity

Plan Microsoft Cloud App Security
 plan information protection by using Cloud App Security
 plan policies to manage access to cloud apps
 plan for application connectors
 configure Cloud App Security policies
 review and respond to Cloud App Security alerts
 monitor for unauthorized cloud applications

Manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance (35-40%)

Plan for compliance requirements
 plan compliance solutions
 assess compliance
 plan for and implement privileged access management
 plan for legislative and regional or industry requirements and drive implementation

Manage information governance
 plan data classification
 plan for classification labeling
 plan for restoring deleted content
 implement records management
 design data retention labels and policies in Microsoft 365

Implement Information protection
 plan an information protection solution
 plan and implement sensitivity labels and policies
 monitor label alerts and analytics
 deploy Azure Information Protection unified labels clients
 configure Information Rights Management (IRM) for workloads
 plan for Windows information Protection (WIP) implementation

Plan and implement data loss prevention (DLP)
 plan for DLP
 configure DLP policies
 monitor DLP

Manage search and investigation
 plan and configure auditing
 plan and configure eDiscovery
 implement and manage insider risk management
 design a Content Search solution

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Endpoint Manager.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Endpoint Manager.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Endpoint Manager, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Endpoint Manager.
Solution: You add your user account as a device enrollment manager.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Endpoint Manager.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Endpoint Manager.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Endpoint Manager, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Endpoint Manager.
Solution: You configure the Apple MDM Push certificate.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Endpoint Manager.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Endpoint Manager.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Endpoint Manager, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Endpoint Manager.
Solution: You create an Apple Configurator enrollment profile.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure
Active Directory (Azure AD).
You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure pilot co-management.
You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1.
You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: You create a device configuration profile from the Device Management admin center.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

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300-710 Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (300-710 SNCF) Exam

 

Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD, plus tax or use Cisco Learning Credits

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco Firepower® Threat Defense and Firepower® 7000 and 8000 Series virtual appliances, including:
Policy configurations
Integrations
Deployments
Management and troubleshooting

Associated certifications:
CCNP Security
Cisco Certified Specialist - Network Security Firepower

Exam Description:
Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower v1.0 (SNCF 300-710) is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco Firepower® Threat Defense and Firepower®, including policy configurations, integrations, deployments, management and troubleshooting. These courses, Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower, and Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System helps candidates prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

30% 1.0 Deployment
1.1 Implement NGFW modes
1.1.a Routed mode
1.1.b Transparent mode
1.2 Implement NGIPS modes
1.2.a Passive
1.2.b Inline
1.3 Implement high availability options
1.3.a Link redundancy
1.3.b Active/standby failover
1.3.c Multi-instance
1.4 Describe IRB configurations

30% 2.0 Configuration
2.1 Configure system settings in Cisco Firepower Management Center
2.2 Configure these policies in Cisco Firepower Management Center
2.2.a Access control
2.2.b Intrusion
2.2.c Malware and file
2.2.d DNS
2.2.e Identity
2.2.f SSL
2.2.g Prefilter
2.3 Configure these features using Cisco Firepower Management Center
2.3.a Network discovery
2.3.b Application detectors (Open AppID)
2019 Cisco Systems, Inc. This document is Cisco Public. Page 2
2.3.c Correlation
2.3.d Actions
2.4 Configure objects using Firepower Management Center
2.4.a Object Management
2.4.b Intrusion Rules
2.5 Configure devices using Firepower Management Center
2.5.a Device Management
2.5.b NAT
2.5.c VPN
2.5.d QoS
2.5.e Platform Settings
2.5.f Certificates

25% 3.0 Management and Troubleshooting
3.1 Troubleshoot with FMC CLI and GUI
3.2 Configure dashboards and reporting in FMC
3.3 Troubleshoot using packet capture procedures
3.4 Analyze risk and standard reports

15% 4.0 Integration
4.1 Configure Cisco AMP for Networks in Firepower Management Center
4.2 Configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints in Firepower Management Center
4.3 Implement Threat Intelligence Director for third-party security intelligence feeds
4.4 Describe using Cisco Threat Response for security investigations
4.5 Describe Cisco FMC PxGrid Integration with Cisco Identify Services Engine (ISE)
4.6 Describe Rapid Threat Containment (RTC) functionality within Firepower Management Center

QUESTION 1
What is a result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.
B. Integrated Routing and Bridging is supported on the master unit.
C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.
D. All Firepower appliances support Cisco FTD clustering.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version
B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.
C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.
D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.
E. The units must be the same model.

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode
B. TAP mode
C. strict TCP enforcement
D. propagate link state

Answer: D

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DES-6322 Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail Exam

 Certification Overview
Hyperconverged solutions simplify IT operations while reducing operational costs. A VxRail cluster allows businesses to start small when integrating into their datacenters and grown seamlessly. Individuals (internals or partners) supporting VxRail customers are required to understand and follow the implementation services in addition to understanding the extended VxRail environment. Individuals will use the certification to validate their knowledge to support implementation activities.

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:

1. Achieve one of the following Associate level certifications*
• Associate – Converged Systems and Hybrid Cloud Version 2.0
• Associate – Cloud Infrastructure and Services Version 3.0

2. Pass the following Specialist exam on or after June 11, 2021:
• DES-6322 Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail Exam

Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of June 11, 2021.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. *Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail (DCS-IE) track.
This exam focuses on the overall product, hardware, and software requirements to implement a VxRail cluster. This includes an introduction to VxRail, hardware installation, pre-deployment tasks, environment validation, software implementation, post-deployment procedures, product scale-out options, REST API functionality, and common issues and troubleshooting of events.

Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• Dell EMC VxRail 7.0.XXX
• Dell EMC PowerEdge Servers
• VMware vSphere
• VMware vSAN
• VMware vCenter

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Introduction to VxRail (8%)
• Describe VxRail use cases, architecture, models, and software stack
• Describe VxRail management, licensing, and data protection options

VxRail Pre-deployment Tasks and Hardware Installation (12%)
• Describe VxRail pre-installation requirements and use of the configuration tools
• Describe VxRail system racking and cabling procedures
• Describe system power up/down and setting management VLAN procedures

VxRail Network Environment Requirements and Initialization (10%)
• Validate the network environment manually
• Validate the network environment using the Network Validation Tool
• Describe ToR network requirements and settings

VxRail System Initialization (17%)
• Describe considerations for deploying Embedded and External vCenter configurations
• Explain differences in the VxRail implementation procedures for various configuration options
• Perform a VxRail initialization using the VxRail First Run Wizard
• Explain requirements for 2-node implementations

VxRail Post-deployment Procedures (20%)
• Perform post-installation validation of the VxRail Cluster Configure support account, SRS, and perform software upgrades
• Describe how to Implement licenses for a VxRail cluster
• Explain the vSAN configuration settings and configure required vSAN settings post deployment
• Configure support account and SRS
• Complete a Test Plan and generate a VxRail As-Built Configuration report

VxRail Cluster Expansion and Stretched Clusters (13%)
• Describe VxRail Upgrade requirements and activities
• Describe VxRail appliance scale-out best practices and the cluster expansion process
• Describe the VxRail Stretched Cluster architecture, features, and requirements

VxRail Troubleshooting (13%)
• Perform VxRail log collections
• Describe VxRail troubleshooting resources and their uses
• Troubleshooting using vSAN tools
• Perform VxRail RASR factory image upgrade and reset procedures

VxRail Appliance REST API (7%)
• Identify REST API functionality available in VxRail and use VxRail API to perform tasks
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

Recommended Training
The following curriculum is recommended for candidates preparing to take this exam.
Please complete one of the following courses

Please complete one of the following courses Course Title Course Number Mode Available as of VxRail Appliance 7.0.XXX Concepts ES101CPX02007 On Demand 09/11/2020
Please complete the following course Course Title Course Number Mode Available as of VxRail 7.0.XXX Feature - REST API ES102CPX02009 On Demand 04/23/2021
Please complete one of the following courses Course Title Course Number Mode Available as of VxRail Installation and Implementation ES524CPX00074 Classroom/Virtual Classroom 3/5/2021 VxRail 7.0.XXX Installation and Implementation
ES502CPX02031 On Demand 02/22/2021

Note: These exam description details reflect contents as of June 11, 2021.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates exams to reflect technical currency and relevance. Please check the Proven Professional website regularly for the latest information.

QUESTION 1
What is a consideration when implementing a custom VDS on a VxRail cluster?

A. Used by multiple clusters managed by a single vCenter instance
B. Supported with external and internal vCenter Servers
C. Supports only four NIC uplinks
D. Supports only two NIC uplinks

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended format for host names when using the VxRail Deployment Wizard for an External vCenter solution?

A. FQDN for vCenter Server Host name for VxRail Manager
B. Host name for both vCenter Server and for VxRail Manager
C. FQDN for both vCenter Server and for VxRail Manager
D. Host name for vCenter Server FQDN for VxRail Manager

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company needs to enable vSphere GPU capabilities on their VxRail cluster. To do so, they need to purchase a specific entitlement.
What licensing satisfies this requirement?

A. vSphere Enterprise Plus
B. vSAN Enterprise Plus Edition
C. vSAN Advanced Edition
D. vSphere Standard

Correct Answer: B

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C1000-018 IBM QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Analysis Exam

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 38
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1: Monitor outputs of configured use cases. 15%
Perform dashboard customization.
Review outputs in all available QRadar Tabs (Dashboards, Log Activity, Network Activity, Assets, etc.).
Navigate to, from and within an offense.
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Review security access trends and anomalies.
Review security risks and network vulnerabilities detected by QRadar.
Describe the different types of rules like behavioral, event, flow, common, offense, anomaly and threshold rules.

Section 2: Perform initial investigation of alerts and offenses created by QRadar. 35%
Describe the use of the magnitude of an offense.
Describe the QRadar network hierarchy.
Explain Offense details on offense details view, why/how it was created.
Identify contributing event and or flow information for an offence.
Show offense lifecycle (e.g., Open, Closed, Assigned, Hidden, Protected).
Illustrate the right click function (ie., event filtering, plugins, information, navigate, other).
Break down triggered rules to identify the reason of the offense.
Distinguish potential threats from probable false positives.
Review the vulnerabilities and threat assessment of the hosts that are involved in the offense.
Describe the roles of security devices such as firewall, IDS/IPS, Proxy, Authentication devices, Antivirus software supported by QRadar.
Perform offense management such as assign an offense to a user, close, protect or hide an offense, add notes, send email or mark the offense for follow-up.
Demonstrate how to export Flow/Event data for external analysis.
Summarize the characteristics of the Standard Custom Properties, User-defined Custom Properties and Normalized properties.
Outline Offense Closing Procedures.

Section 3: Identify and escalate undesirable rule behavior to administrator. 20%
Report potential false positives.
Report rule usage and offenses generated by those rules.
Report any abnormal security access trends and events to security admins.
Report threats, risks, or vulnerabilities to network/security admins, based on severity.
Outline simple Offense naming mechanisms.
Interpret rules that test for regular expressions.
Explain relevant test and the test order of the rules.
Illustrate the difference between rule responses and rule actions (e.g. limiter).
Recognize the "special" Building Blocks: Host Definition, Cat Definition, Port Definition.
Describe the usage of the log sources, flow sources, vulnerability scanners, and reference data.
Identify why rules are not being triggered as expected (e.g., dropped from CRE, or local vs global, stateful counters).

Section 4: Extract information for regular or adhoc distribution to consumer of outputs. 17%
Perform searches using filters.
Perform Quick (Lucene) searches.
Perform Advanced (AQL) searches.
Explain the different uses for each search type (ie., filtered, Quick and Advanced).
Intepret a timeseries graph in a dashboard.
Select suitable standard Reports for a situation.
Create and generate scheduled and manual reports.
Share findings about offenses by distributing offense detail via email.
Discuss the content of an event or flow, including the normalized fields.

Section 5: Identify and escalate issues with regards to QRadar health and functionality. 13%
Explain QRadar architecture by summarizing QRadar components (ie., Console, Event Processor, Event Collector, Flow Processor, Data Nodes and Flow Collector, App host).
Interpret common system notifications.
Illustrate the impact of QRadar property indexes.
Distinguish when an event has coalesced information in it.
Illustrate events that are not correctly parsed.
Explain QRadar timestamps (e.g., Log Source Time, Storage time, Start time).
Report any agents or log sources that are not reporting to QRadar on a regular basis.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: C0003502
Replaces PW Code: 38007401
Status: Live

This entry level certification is intended for security analysts who wish to validate their comprehensive knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2.

These security analysts will understand basic networking, basic Security and SIEM and QRadar concepts.
They will also understand how to log in to, navigate within, and explain capabilities of the product using the graphical user interface.

Additionally, they will also be able to identify causes of offenses, and access, interpret, and report security information in a QRadar deployment.

Note: The function of specific apps, apart from the two bundled with the product, is out of scope, but the concept of extending the capability of using apps is in scope.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Basic knowledge of:
SIEM concepts
TCP/IP Networking
IT Security concepts
General IT skills (browser navigation etc...)
internet security attack types additional features that need additional licenses including but not limited to QRadar Vulnerability Manager, QRadar Risk Manager, QRadar Flows, Incident Forensics

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

C1000-018 - IBM QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Analysis

The test: contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer. is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

QUESTION 1
Which use case type is appropriate for VPN log sources? (Choose two.)

A. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)
B. Insider Threat
C. Critical Data Protection
D. Securing the Cloud

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
What is displayed in the status bar of the Log Activity tab when streaming events?

A. Average number of results that are received per second.
B. Average number of results that are received per minute.
C. Accumulated number of results that are received per second.
D. Accumulated number of results that are received per minute.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An analyst wants to analyze the long-term trending of data from a search.
Which chart would be used to display this data on a dashboard?

A. Bar Graph
B. Time Series chart
C. Pie Chart
D. Scatter Chart

Correct Answer: A

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N10-008 CompTIA Network+ Exam

 

CompTIA Network+ helps develop a career in IT infrastructure covering troubleshooting, configuring, and managing networks.

CompTIA Network+ validates the technical skills needed to securely establish, maintain and troubleshoot the essential networks that businesses rely on.

Unlike other vendor-specific networking certifications, CompTIA Network+ prepares candidates to support networks on any platform. CompTIA Network+ is the only certification that covers the specific skills that network professionals need. Other certifications are so broad, they don’t cover the hands-on skills and precise knowledge needed in today’s networking environments.

CompTIA Network+ features flexible training options including self-paced learning, live online training, custom training and labs to advance the career development of IT professionals in network administration.

The new CompTIA Network+ N10-008 will be available 9/15. CompTIA Network+ N10-007 (English language version) will retire June 2022.

What Skills Will You Learn?
Artboard-8: Networking Fundamentals
Explain basic networking concepts including network services, physical connections, topologies and architecture, and cloud connectivity.
Artboard-2 :Network Implementations
Explain routing technologies and networking devices; deploy ethernet solutions and configure wireless technologies.
Maintenance : Network Operations

Monitor and optimize networks to ensure business continuity.
Maintenance : Network Security
Explain security concepts and network attacks in order to harden networks against threats.
Troubleshooting :Network Troubleshooting
Troubleshoot common cable, connectivity, and software issues related to networking.

Junior Network Administrator

Datacenter Support Technician: Network Engineer
System Administrator : NOC Technician
Telecommunications Technician : Cable Technician

Exam Codes N10-008
Launch Date September 15, 2021
Exam Description CompTIA Network+ validates the technical skills needed to securely establish, maintain and troubleshoot the essential networks that businesses rely on.
Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 720 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA A+ Certification and at least 9 to 12 months of networking experience
Languages English, with Japanese scheduled and others TBD, English, German, Japanese, Spanish, Portuguese
Retirement Generally three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE

Testing Centers Online Testing

CompTIA Network+ N10-008:

What’s in this version
Network architecture appears on the exam for the first time, including more emphasis on software-defined networking, ensuring that candidates understand network integrations and the cutting-edge technologies being used in deployments.
Emerging wireless standards and technologies are covered to allow businesses flexibility and maximal security when deploying networks.
Because constant access to both internal networks and SaaS applications drives productivity, network performance monitoring and high availability are covered as separate objectives.
Network security has been streamlined to focus on the critical aspects of hardening networks against malicious attacks and the secure execution of network deployments to protect against unintended data breaches.

Exam Preparation
CompTIA offers a wealth of certification training that is designed for exam success. Find out more and explore all training options.

Performance-Based Questions
In addition to a traditional multiple-choice questions, some CompTIA certification exams include performance-based questions (PBQs). PBQs test a candidate’s ability to solve problems in a simulated environment. Please be aware that the environment is not a live lab, and therefore, it may have restricted system functionality. PBQs are often an approximation of a virtual environment, such as a firewall, network diagram, terminal window, or operating system.

Tips for completing PBQs on your exam
Manage your time wisely.
If you don’t feel confident about answering a PBQ, move on to the next question. Click the Next button to proceed with the exam. Your work will be saved as you work on the PBQ and when moving to another item.
Many PBQs appear at the beginning of the exam. Use this knowledge to manage the amount of time you spend on each exam item.

CompTIA Network+ 008 Exam Domains
Networking Fundamentals (24%)
Network Implementations (19%)
Network Operations (16%)
Network Security (19%)
Network Troubleshooting (22%)

QUESTION 1
A systems administrator needs to improve WiFi performance in a densely populated office tower and use the latest standard. There is a mix of devices that use 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which of the following should the
systems administrator select to meet this requirement?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be BEST to use to detect a MAC spoofing attack?

A. Internet Control Message Protocol
B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
D. Internet Message Access Protocol

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A technician receives feedback that some users are experiencing high amounts of jitter while using the
wireless network. While troubleshooting the network, the technician uses the ping command with the IP
address of the default gateway and verifies large variations in latency. The technician thinks the issue may be
interference from other networks and non-802.11 devices. Which of the following tools should the technician
use to troubleshoot the issue?

A. NetFlow analyzer
B. Bandwidth analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Spectrum analyzer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Wireless users are reporting intermittent internet connectivity. Connectivity is restored when the users
disconnect and reconnect, utilizing the web authentication process each time. The network administrator can
see the devices connected to the APs at all times. Which of the following steps will MOST likely determine the cause of the issue?

A. Verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings
B. Check for encryption protocol mismatch on the client’s wireless settings
C. Confirm that a valid passphrase is being used during the web authentication
D. Investigate for a client’s disassociation caused by an evil twin AP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A network administrator walks into a datacenter and notices an unknown person is following closely. The
administrator stops and directs the person to the security desk. Which of the following attacks did the network administrator prevent?

A. Evil twin
B. Tailgating
C. Piggybacking
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

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DP-900 Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals Exam Update October 25, 2021

 

The content of this exam will be updated on October 25, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.

NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here.
Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean, French, German, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Russian, Indonesian (Indonesia), Arabic (Saudi Arabia), Chinese (Traditional), Italian

Retirement date: none

Prove that you can describe the following: core data concepts; how to work with relational data on Azure; how to work with non-relational data on Azure; and an analytics workload on Azure.

Skills measured
The content of this exam will be updated on October 25, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what will be changing.
Describe core data concepts (15-20%)
Describe how to work with relational data on Azure (25-30%)
Describe how to work with non-relational data on Azure (25-30%)
Describe an analytics workload on Azure (25-30%)


This exam will be updated on October 25, 2021. Following the current exam guide, we have included a version of the exam guide with Track Changes set to “On,” showing the changes that will be made to the exam on that date.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam should have foundational knowledge of core data concepts and how they are implemented using Microsoft Azure data services.
This exam is intended for candidates beginning to work with data in the cloud.

Candidates should be familiar with the concepts of relational and non-relational data, and different types of data workloads such as transactional or analytical.

Azure Data Fundamentals can be used to prepare for other Azure role-based certifications like Azure Database Administrator Associate or Azure Data Engineer Associate, but it is not a prerequisite for any of them.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Describe core data concepts (15-20%)
Describe types of core data workloads
 describe batch data
 describe streaming data
 describe the difference between batch and streaming data
 describe the characteristics of relational data

Describe data analytics core concepts
 describe data visualization (e.g., visualization, reporting, business intelligence (BI))
 describe basic chart types such as bar charts and pie charts
 describe analytics techniques (e.g., descriptive, diagnostic, predictive, prescriptive, cognitive)
 describe ELT and ETL processing
 describe the concepts of data processing

Describe how to work with relational data on Azure (25-30%)
Describe relational data workloads
 identify the right data offering for a relational workload
 describe relational data structures (e.g., tables, index, views)

Describe relational Azure data services
 describe and compare PaaS, IaaS, and SaaS solutions
 describe Azure SQL family of products including Azure SQL Database, Azure SQL

Managed Instance, and SQL Server on Azure Virtual Machines
 describe Azure Synapse Analytics
 describe Azure Database for PostgreSQL, Azure Database for MariaDB, and Azure

Database for MySQL
Identify basic management tasks for relational data
 describe provisioning and deployment of relational data services
 describe method for deployment including the Azure portal, Azure Resource Manager templates,

Azure PowerShell, and the Azure command-line interface (CLI)
 identify data security components (e.g., firewall, authentication)
 identify basic connectivity issues (e.g., accessing from on-premises, access with from

Azure VNets, access from Internet, authentication, firewalls)
 identify query tools (e.g., Azure Data Studio, SQL Server Management Studio, sqlcmd utility, etc.)

Describe query techniques for data using SQL language
 compare Data Definition Language (DDL) versus Data Manipulation Language (DML)
 query relational data in Azure SQL Database, Azure Database for PostgreSQL, and Azure

Database for MySQL
Describe how to work with non-relational data on Azure (25-30%)
Describe non-relational data workloads
 describe the characteristics of non-relational data
 describe the types of non-relational and NoSQL data
 recommend the correct data store
 determine when to use non-relational data

Describe non-relational data offerings on Azure
 identify Azure data services for non-relational workloads
 describe Azure Cosmos DB APIs
 describe Azure Table storage
 describe Azure Blob storage
 describe Azure File storage

Identify basic management tasks for non-relational data
 describe provisioning and deployment of non-relational data services
 describe method for deployment including the Azure portal, Azure Resource Manager
templates, Azure PowerShell, and the Azure command-line interface (CLI)
 identify data security components (e.g., firewall, authentication, encryption)
 identify basic connectivity issues (e.g., accessing from on-premises, access with from
Azure VNets, access from Internet, authentication, firewalls)
 identify management tools for non-relational data

Describe an analytics workload on Azure (25-30%)
Describe analytics workloads
 describe transactional workloads
 describe the difference between a transactional and an analytics workload
 describe the difference between batch and real time
 describe data warehousing workloads
 determine when a data warehouse solution is needed

Describe the components of a modern data warehouse
 describe Azure data services for modern data warehousing such as Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2, Azure Synapse Analytics, Azure Databricks, and Azure HDInsight
 describe modern data warehousing architecture and workload

Describe data ingestion and processing on Azure
 describe common practices for data loading
 describe the components of Azure Data Factory (e.g., pipeline, activities, etc.)
 describe data processing options (e.g., Azure HDInsight, Azure Databricks, Azure Synapse Analytics, Azure Data Factory)

Describe data visualization in Microsoft Power BI
 describe the role of paginated reporting
 describe the role of interactive reports
 describe the role of dashboards
 describe the workflow in Power BI

QUESTION 1
Which statement is an example of Data Manipulation Language (DML)?

A. REVOKE
B. DISABLE
C. INSERT
D. GRANT

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a SQL query that combines customer data and order data. The query includes calculated columns.
You need to create a database object that would allow other users to rerun the same SQL query.
What should you create?

A. an index
B. a view
C. a scalar function
D. a table

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the Core (SQL) API.
Which two settings can you configure at the container level? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. the throughput
B. the read region
C. the partition key
D. the API

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
You need to store data by using Azure Table storage.
What should you create first?

A. an Azure Cosmos DB instance
B. a storage account
C. a blob container
D. a table

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What should you use to build a Microsoft Power BI paginated report?

A. Charticulator
B. Power BI Desktop
C. the Power BI service
D. Power BI Report Builder

Correct Answer: D

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PL-900 Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals Exam

 

The content of this exam was updated on March 10, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

Candidates for this exam aspire to improve productivity by understanding the capabilities of the Power Platform, automating basic business processes with Power Automate, performing basic data analysis with Power BI, acting more effectively by creating simple Power Apps experiences, and creating powerful chatbots by using Power Virtual Agents.

You may be eligible for ACE college credit if you pass this certification exam. See ACE college credit for certification exams for details.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Power Platform Fundamentals
Related exams: none
Important: See details

Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on March 10, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.
Describe the business value of Power Platform (15-20%)
Identify the core components of Power Platform (15-20%)
Demonstrate the capabilities of Power BI (15-20%)
Describe the capabilities of Power Apps (15-20%)
Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Automate (15-20%)
Demonstrate the business value of Power Virtual Agents (10-15%)


The exam guide below shows the changes that were implemented on March 10, 2021.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam aspire to improve productivity by understanding the capabilities of the Power Platform, automating basic business processes with Power Automate, performing basic data analysis with Power BI, acting more effectively by creating simple Power Apps experiences and creating powerful chatbots by using Power Virtual Agents.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Describe the business value of Power Platform (15-20%)
Describe the business value of Power Platform services
 analyze data by using Power BI
 act with Power Apps
 build solutions that use Common Data ServiceMicrosoft Dataverse
 create flows by using Power Automate
 use connectors to access services and data
 create powerful chatbots by using a guided, no-code graphical interface

Describe the business value of extending business solutions by using Power Platform
 describe how Dynamics 365 apps can accelerate delivery of Power Platform business solutions
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can be used by Microsoft 365 apps including Microsoft Teams
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can consume Microsoft 365 services
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can consume Microsoft Azure services including Azure Cognitive Services
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can consume third-party apps and services

Describe Power Platform administration and security
 describe how Power Platform implements security including awareness of Common Data
ServiceMicrosoft Dataverse security roles, Azure Identity Services, and Access
Management (IAM)
 describe how to manage apps and users
 describe environments
 describe where to perform specific administrative tasks including Power Platform Admin center, Microsoft 365 admin center
 describe Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies
 describe how the platform supports privacy and accessibility guidelines

Identify the Core Components of Power Platform (15-20%)
Describe Common Data ServiceMicrosoft Dataverse
 describe the Power Apps user experience
 describe entitiestables, fieldscolumns, and relationships
 describe use cases for solutions
 describe use cases and limitations of business rules
 describe the Common Data Model (CDM)
 describe how to use common standard entities tables to describe people, places, and things

Describe Connectors
 describe the native Dataverse connection experience
 describe triggers including trigger types and where triggers are used
 describe actions
 describe licensing options for connectors including standard or premium tier Identify use cases for custom connectors

Describe AI Builder
 identify the business value of AI Builder
 describe models including business card reader, detection model, form processing model, and prediction model
 describe how the Power Apps and Power Automate can consume AI Builder data

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power BI (15-20%)
Identify common Power BI components
 identify and describe uses for visualization controls including pie, bar, donut, and scatter plots and KPIs
 describe types of filters
 describe the Power BI Desktop Reports, Data, and Model tabs
 describe uses for custom visuals including charts or controls
Compare and contrast dashboards and workspaces
 compare and contrast Power BI Desktop and Power BI Service
 compare and contrast dashboards, workspaces, and reports

Connect to and consume data
 combine multiple data sources
 clean and transform data
 describe and implement aggregate functions
 identify available types of data sources including Microsoft Excel
 describe use cases for shared datasets and template apps and how to consume each

Build a basic dashboard using Power BI
 design a Power BI dashboard
 design data layout and mapping
 publish and share reports and dashboards

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Apps (15-20%)
Identify common Power Apps components
 describe differences between canvas apps and model-driven apps
 describe portal apps
 identify and describe types of reusable components including canvas component libraries and Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) components
 describe use cases for formulas

Build a basic canvas app
 describe types of data sources
 connect to data by using connectors
 combine multiple data sources
 use controls to design the user experience
 describe the customer journey
 publish and share an app

Describe Power Apps portals
 create a portal by using a template
 describe common portal customizations
 identify differences in portal behavior based on whether a user is authenticated
 apply a theme to a portal

Build a basic model-driven app
 add entities tables to app navigation
 modify forms and views
 publish and share an app

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Automate (15-20%)
Identify common Power Automate components
 identify flow types
 describe use cases for flows and available flow templates
 describe how Power Automate uses connectors
 describe loops and conditions including switch, do until, and apply to each
 describe expressions
 describe approvals

Build a basic flow
 create a flow by using the button, automated, or scheduled flow template
 modify a flow
 use flow controls to perform data operations
 run a flow
 modify a flow

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Virtual Agents (10-15%)
Describe Power Virtual Agents capabilities
 describe use cases for Power Virtual Agents
 describe where you can publish chatbots
 describe topics, entities and actions
 describe message nodes, question nodes, conditions, trigger phrases, and the authoring canvas
 identify common pre-built entities

Build and publish a basic chatbot
 create a chatbot
 create a topic
 call an action
 test a chatbot
 publish a chatbot
 monitor chatbot usage
 monitor chatbot performance

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have a Power Apps app. You create a new version of the app and then publish the new version.
A customer goes through the process of restoring the previous version of the app. In the Version tab for the app, you will see two versions of the app.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is
incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.
B. one
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The company uses a browser-based app named Sales Hub.
You need to ensure that users can access data from mobile devices.
Which app should users install?

A. Dynamics 365 Remote Assist
B. Dynamics 365 Finance
C. Dynamics 365 Business Central
D. Dynamics 365 for Phones

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are a customer service manager.
You need to implement a Power Apps portal that allows customers to submit cases.
Which type of data source is used?

A. Dynamics 365 Connector
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. Microsoft Azure Storage
D. Common Data Service

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A distribution company has multiple warehouses.
Tax rates charged on sales orders need to be calculated based on locality and region.
You need to recommend a cost-effective solution that can be implemented quickly.
What should you recommend?

A. Check AppSource for a tax add-on.
B. Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance for tax table changes.
C. Implement the Common Data Model.
D. Run a Power BI report.
E. Write scripts and code tax updates.

Correct Answer: B

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C1000-112 Fundamentals of Quantum Computation Using Qiskit v0.2X Developer

 

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 44
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

An IBM Qiskit Developer is an individual who demonstrates fundamental knowledge of quantum computing concepts and is able to express them using the Qiskit open source software development kit (SDK). They have experience using the Qiskit SDK from the Python programming language to create and execute quantum computing programs on IBM Quantum computers and simulators.

Key areas of competency:
Defining, executing, and visualizing results of quantum circuits using the Qiskit SDK
Understanding single-qubit gates and their rotations on the Bloch sphere.
Understanding various multi-qubit gates and their effects in quantum circuits.
Leveraging fundamental Qiskit SDK features including commonly-used classes and functions located in qiskit.circuit, qiskit.execute, qiskit.providers, qiskit.qasm, qiskit.quantum_info, qiskit.tools, and qiskit.visualization packages.


During exam development, the Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) define all of the tasks, knowledge and experience that an individual would need in order to successfully fulfill their role with the product or solution. These are represented by the objectives below and the questions on the certification exam are based upon these objective.

1 Perform Operations on Quantum Circuits 47%
Construct multi-qubit quantum registers
Measure quantum circuits in classical registers
Use single-qubit gates
Use multi-qubit gates
Use barrier operations
Return the circuit depth
Extend quantum circuits
Return the OpenQASM string for a circuit

2 Executing Experiments 3%
Execute a quantum circuit

3 Implement BasicAer: Python-based Simulators 3%
Use the available simulators

4 Implement Qasm 1%
Read a QASM file

5 Compare and Contrast Quantum Information 10%
Use classical and quantum registers
Use operators
Measure fidelity

6 Return the Experiment Results 7%
Return the histogram data of an experiment
Return the statevector of an experiment
Return the unitary of an experiment

7 Use Qiskit Tools 1%
Monitor the status of a job instance

8 Display and Use System Information 3%
Perform operations around the Qiskit version
Use information gained from quiskit_backend_overview

9 Construct Visualizations 19%
Draw a circuit
Plot a histogram of data
Plot a Bloch multivector
Plot a Bloch vector
Plot a QSphere
Plot a density matrix
Plot a gate map with error rates

10 Access Aer Provider 6%
Assess a statevector_simulator backend
Assess a qasm_simulator backend
Assess a unitary_simulator backend

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: C0010300
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
An IBM Qiskit Developer is an individual who demonstrates fundamental knowledge of quantum computing concepts and is able to express them using the Qiskit open source software development kit (SDK). They have experience using the Qiskit SDK from the Python programming language to create and execute quantum computing programs on IBM Quantum computers and simulators.

Key areas of competency:
Defining, executing, and visualizing results of quantum circuits using the Qiskit SDK
Understanding single-qubit gates and their rotations on the Bloch sphere.
Understanding various multi-qubit gates and their effects in quantum circuits.
Leveraging fundamental Qiskit SDK features including commonly-used classes and functions located in qiskit.circuit, qiskit.execute, qiskit.providers, qiskit.qasm, qiskit.quantum_info, qiskit.tools, and qiskit.visualization packages.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Working knowledge of creating, executing, and visualizing the results quantum of circuits using the online IBM Quantum Composer
Working knowledge of developing examples that highlight features of the Qiskit SDK, such as those found in the online IBM Quantum Lab
Working knowledge of modeling quantum states and evolution with complex vectors and matrices.
Working knowledge of Pauli matrices.
Working knowledge of quantum state measurement probabilities.
Familiarity with common circuits such as those that result in the Bell states.

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500-220 Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 Exam

 

Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 (500-220)
Exam Description: The Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 (ECMS 500-220) is a 90-minute exam associated with the Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills to engineer Meraki solutions including cloud management, design, implementing, monitoring, and troubleshooting. The courses, Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions Part 1 and Part 2, help candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

15% 1.0 Cisco Meraki Cloud Management
1.1 Explain Cisco Meraki cloud architecture
1.2 Explain access methods to dashboard and devices
1.3 Explain organizational structure, segmentation and permissions
1.4 Explain licensing, co-termination, and renewals
1.5 Compare deployment workflows

30% 2.0 Design
2.1 Design scalable Meraki Auto VPN architectures
2.2 Explain deployment consideration for the vMX
2.3 Design dynamic path selection policies
2.4 Design stable, secure, and scalable routing deployments
2.5 Design Enterprise network services
2.5a Redundant networks and high availability
2.5b QOS strategy for voice and video
2.5c Applying security at layer 2
2.5d Firewall and IPS rules on MX and MR
2.5e Network access control solutions
2.6 Design Enterprise wireless services
2.6a High density wireless deployments
2.6b MR wireless networks for Enterprise
2.6c MR wireless networks for guest access
2.7 Compare endpoint device and application management methods
2.7a Device enrollment such as supervised and device owner
2.7b Application deployment

25% 3.0 Implementation
3.1 Configuring MX security appliances
3.1a SVI, dynamic routing and static routes
3.1b Auto VPN
3.1c Traffic shaping and SD-WAN
3.1d Threat protection and content filtering rules
3.1e Access policies and 802.1x
3.2 Configuring MS switches
3.2a SVI, dynamic routing and static routes
3.2b QoS using Meraki switching networks
3.2c Access policies and 802.1x
3.2d Replicate a switch configuration
3.3 Configuring MR wireless access points
3.3a SSIDs for Enterprise and BYOD deployments
3.3b Traffic shaping
3.3c RF profiles
3.3d Air Marshal
3.4 Configuring SM endpoint management
3.4a Management profiles
3.4b Security policies
3.4c Sentry for Meraki managed deployments
3.5 Configuring MV security cameras
3.5a Camera video and alerting
3.5b Retention settings
3.6 Configuring MI application assurance
3.6a Standard applications
3.6b Application thresholds

30% 4.0 Monitoring and Troubleshooting
4.1 Interpret information from monitoring and reporting tools
4.1a Alerts with Dashboard, SNMP, Syslog and Netflow in Dashboard
4.1b Logging and reporting in Dashboard
4.2 Describe how to use the dashboard API to monitor and maintain networks
4.3 Explain firmware upgrades
4.4 Troubleshooting Enterprise networks
4.4a Layer 2 technologies using Dashboard
4.4b Layer 3 technologies using Dashboard
4.4c Wireless client connectivity issues using Dashboard
4.4d Device local status pages
4.4e Security threats using Security Center
4.4f Application performance issues using Meraki Insight

QUESTION 1
When an SSID is configured with Sign-On Splash page enabled, which two settings must be configured for unauthenticated clients to have full network access and not be allow listed? (Choose two.)

A. Controller disconnection behavior
B. Captive Portal strength
C. Simultaneous logins
D. Firewall & traffic shaping
E. RADIUS for splash page settings

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network
B. more hardware devices than device licenses
C. expired device license
D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization
E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.
B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.
C. Configuring a syslog server for the network.
D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which design requirement is met by implementing syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed
B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated
C. when organization-wide information must be collected
D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Correct Answer: D

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JN0-230 Security-Associate (JNCIA-SEC) Exam

 

Exam Details
JNCIA-SEC exam topics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led training courses, as well as the additional resources.

Juniper Networks, Inc. is an American worldwide organization that creates and markets diverse systems administration items that incorporate switches, switches, arrange the board programming, programming characterized by organizing innovation, and system security items.

The Juniper is crucial to carry straightforwardness to systems administration with inventive arrangements, administrations, and items that associate the world with no interference and security concerns.

The organization holds over a 40% portion of the center switches showcase. To help its multipurpose and wide cluster of systems administration items and advances and the clients who utilize these items the Juniper offers certification programs.

These Juniper certifications fall into various classes, for example, Associate, Specialist, Professional and Expert levels. The Juniper certification gives a substantial, solid and reasonable strategy for surveying information and mastery to chip away at the Juniper items and innovation. With this certification program, Juniper needs to build up an overall network of ensured experts who sell, administration, support and prescribe Juniper items and arrangements.

Juniper JN0-230 Exam Details:
Juniper JN0-230 Exam or Security, Associate is one of the most prominent and profession remunerating Juniper certification programs that will confirm your strong comprehension of systems administration security. This program is intended for systems administration experts, this composed exam will exam the applicant’s learning and ability of security innovations and related stage structuring, execution, setup, and investigating, and so forth.

Regardless of whether you are beginning your career with Juniper or Juniper experts and need to overhaul their insight, you should attempt to pass this Security, Associate exam with great success.

Exam code: JN0-230
Administered by Pearson VUE
Exam length: 90 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Scoring and pass/fail status is available immediately
Junos Software Release: 19.1

Exam Objectives
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam.

Identify concepts or general features of SRX Series devices
Interfaces
Hardware
Initial configuration
Traffic flow/security processing
vSRX

Identify concepts or general functionality of security zone, screen, address, or services objects
Zones
Screens
Addresses/address books

Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of security policies
Zone-based policies
Global policies
Application firewall
Unified security policies
IPS/IDP
Integrated user firewall

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of Sky ATP
General operation
Blocking mechanisms

Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of NAT
Source NAT
Destination NAT
Static NAT

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of IPsec VPNs
IPsec tunnel establishment
IPsec traffic processing
IPsec site-to-site VPNs

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of UTM
Content filtering
Web filtering
Antivirus
Antispam

Describe methods for monitoring, reporting, or logging for Juniper security solutions
J-Web
Sky Enterprise
Junos Space Security Director

Preparation
The resources listed on this section are recommended, but do not guarantee passing scores on JNCP exams. Success depends on each candidate’s motivation, experience, and dedication. Candidates may find additional resources not listed on this page helpful as well.

Introduction to Juniper Security
Industry/Product Knowledge
Juniper Networks Technical Publication (Tech Pubs)

Visit Junos Genius for information pertaining to this practice test.

Recertification
The JNCIA-SEC certification is valid for three years. To view the recertification options, go to the Recertification webpage.

QUESTION 1
Which statement is correct about Junos security zones?

A. User-defined security zones must contain at least one interface.
B. Logical interfaces are added to user-defined security zones.
C. Security policies are referenced within a user-defined security zone.
D. User-defined security zones must contain the key word “zone”.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which type of traffic is analyzed by an SRX Series device configured to use an antispam UTM policy?

A. IMAP
B. POP3
C. SMTP
D. HTTP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the definition of a zone on an SRX Series device?

A. a collection of one or more network segments sharing similar security requirements
B. an individual logical interface with a public IP address
C. a collection of one or more network segments with different security requirements
D. an individual logical interface with a private IP address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your company uses SRX Series devices to secure the edge of the network.
You are asked to protect the company from ransomware attacks.
Which solution will satisfy this requirement?

A. screens
B. unified security policies
C. AppSecure
D. Sky ATP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which method do VPNs use to prevent outside parties from viewing packets in clear text?

A. integrity
B. authentication
C. encryption
D. NAT-T

Correct Answer: C

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