Monday, February 5, 2024

SC-100 Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect Exam update January 23, 2024

 

Updates to the exam
Our exams are updated periodically to reflect skills that are required to perform a role. We have included two versions of the Skills Measured objectives depending on when you are taking the exam.

We always update the English language version of the exam first. Some exams are localized into other languages, and those are updated approximately eight weeks after the English version is updated. While Microsoft makes every effort to update localized versions as noted, there may be times when localized versions of an exam are not updated on this schedule. Other available languages are listed in the Schedule Exam section of the Exam Details webpage. If the exam isn't available in your preferred language, you can request an additional 30 minutes to complete the exam.

Note
The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. Related topics may be covered in the exam.

Note
Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.


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Skills measured as of January 23, 2024
Audience profile

As a Microsoft cybersecurity architect, you translate a cybersecurity strategy into capabilities that protect the assets, business, and operations of an organization. You design, guide the implementation of, and maintain security solutions that follow Zero Trust principles and best practices, including security strategies for:

Identity
Devices
Data
Applications
Network
Infrastructure
DevOps
Plus, you design solutions for:
Governance and Risk Compliance (GRC)
Security operations
Security posture management

As a cybersecurity architect, you continuously collaborate with leaders and practitioners in IT security, privacy, and other roles across an organization to plan and implement a cybersecurity strategy that meets the business needs of an organization.

As a candidate for this exam, you have experience implementing or administering solutions in the following areas:

Identity and access
Platform protection
Security operations
Data security
Application security
Hybrid and multicloud infrastructures

You should have expert skills in at least one of those areas, and you should have experience designing security solutions that include Microsoft security technologies.

Skills at a glance
Design solutions that align with security best practices and priorities (20–25%)
Design security operations, identity, and compliance capabilities (30–35%)
Design security solutions for infrastructure (20–25%)
Design security solutions for applications and data (20–25%)

Design solutions that align with security best practices and priorities (20–25%)
Design a resiliency strategy for ransomware and other attacks based on Microsoft Security Best Practices
Design a security strategy to support business resiliency goals, including identifying and prioritizing threats to business-critical assets
Design solutions that align with Microsoft ransomware best practices, including backup, restore, and privileged access
Design configurations for secure backup and restore by using Azure Backup for hybrid and multicloud environments
Design solutions for security updates
Design solutions that align with the Microsoft Cybersecurity Reference Architectures (MCRA) and Microsoft cloud security benchmark (MCSB)
Design solutions that align with best practices for cybersecurity capabilities and controls
Design solutions that align with best practices for protecting against insider and external attacks
Design solutions that align with best practices for Zero Trust security, including the Zero Trust Rapid Modernization Plan (RaMP)
Design solutions that align with the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure and the Microsoft Azure Well-Architected Framework
Design a new or evaluate an existing strategy for security and governance based on the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework (CAF) for Azure and the Microsoft Azure Well-Architected Framework
Recommend solutions for security and governance based on the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure and the Microsoft Azure Well-Architected Framework
Design solutions for implementing and governing security by using Azure landing zones
Design a DevSecOps process

Design security operations, identity, and compliance capabilities (30–35%)
Design solutions for security operations
Develop security operations capabilities to support a hybrid or multicloud environment
Design a solution for centralized logging and auditing
Design a solution for security information and event management (SIEM), including Microsoft Sentinel
Design a solution for detection and response that includes extended detection and response (XDR)
Design a solution for security orchestration automated response (SOAR), including Microsoft Sentinel and Microsoft Defender
Design and evaluate security workflows, including incident response, threat hunting, incident management, and threat intelligence
Design and evaluate threat detection coverage by using MITRE ATT&CK
Design solutions for identity and access management
Design a solution for access to software as a service (SaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), infrastructure as a service (IaaS), hybrid/on-premises, and multicloud resources, including identity, networking, and application controls
Design a solution for Microsoft Entra ID, including hybrid and multi-cloud environments
Design a solution for external identities, including business-to-business (B2B), business-to-customer (B2C), and decentralized identity
Design a modern authentication and authorization strategy, including Conditional Access, continuous access evaluation, threat intelligence integration, and risk scoring
Validate the alignment of Conditional Access policies with a Zero Trust strategy
Specify requirements to secure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
Design a solution to manage secrets, keys, and certificates
Design solutions for securing privileged access
Design a solution for assigning and delegating privileged roles by using the enterprise access model
Design an identity governance solution, including Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management (PIM), privileged access management, entitlement management, and access reviews
Design a solution for securing the administration of cloud tenants, including SaaS and multicloud infrastructure and platforms
Design a solution for cloud infrastructure entitlement management that includes Microsoft Entra Permissions Management
Design a solution for Privileged Access Workstation (PAW) and bastion services
Design solutions for regulatory compliance
Translate compliance requirements into a security solution
Design a solution to address compliance requirements by using Microsoft Purview risk and compliance solutions
Design a solution to address privacy requirements, including Microsoft Priva
Design Azure Policy solutions to address security and compliance requirements
Evaluate infrastructure compliance by using Microsoft Defender for Cloud

Design security solutions for infrastructure (20–25%)
Design solutions for security posture management in hybrid and multicloud environments
Evaluate security posture by using MCSB
Evaluate security posture by using Microsoft Defender for Cloud
Evaluate security posture by using Microsoft Secure Score
Design integrated security posture management and workload protection solutions in hybrid and multi-cloud environments, including Microsoft Defender for Cloud
Design cloud workload protection solutions that use Microsoft Defender for Cloud, such as Microsoft Defender for Servers, Microsoft Defender for App Service, and Microsoft Defender for SQL
Design a solution for integrating hybrid and multicloud environments by using Azure Arc
Design a solution for Microsoft Defender External Attack Surface Management (Defender EASM)
Design solutions for securing server and client endpoints
Specify security requirements for servers, including multiple platforms and operating systems
Specify security requirements for mobile devices and clients, including endpoint protection, hardening, and configuration
Specify security requirements for IoT devices and embedded systems
Design a solution for securing operational technology (OT) and industrial control systems (ICS) by using Microsoft Defender for IoT
Specify security baselines for server and client endpoints
Design a solution for secure remote access
Specify requirements for securing SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS services
Specify security baselines for SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS services
Specify security requirements for IoT workloads
Specify security requirements for web workloads, including Azure App Service
Specify security requirements for containers
Specify security requirements for container orchestration

Design security solutions for applications and data (20–25%)
Design solutions for securing Microsoft 365
Evaluate security posture for productivity and collaboration workloads by using metrics, including Microsoft Secure Score and Microsoft Defender for Cloud secure score
Design a Microsoft 365 Defender solution
Design secure configurations and operational practices for Microsoft 365 workloads and data
Design solutions for securing applications
Evaluate the security posture of existing application portfolios
Evaluate threats to business-critical applications by using threat modeling
Design and implement a full lifecycle strategy for application security
Design and implement standards and practices for securing the application development process
Map technologies to application security requirements
Design a solution for workload identity to authenticate and access Azure cloud resources
Design a solution for API management and security
Design a solution for secure access to applications, including Azure Web Application Firewall (WAF) and Azure Front Door
Design solutions for securing an organization's data
Design a solution for data discovery and classification by using Microsoft Purview data governance solutions
Specify priorities for mitigating threats to data
Design a solution for protection of data at rest, data in motion, and data in use
Design a security solution for data in Azure workloads, including Azure SQL, Azure Synapse Analytics, and Azure Cosmos DB
Design a security solution for data in Azure Storage
Design a security solution that includes Microsoft Defender for Storage and Microsoft Defender for SQL


Sample Questions and Answers

New Topic: Topic 1, Fabrikam, Inc Case Study 1
OverView
Fabrikam, Inc. is an insurance company that has a main office in New York and a branch office in Paris.
On-premises Environment
The on-premises network contains a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named corp.fabrikam.com.
Azure Environment
Fabrikam has the following Azure resources:
An Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named fabrikam.onmicrosoft.com that syncs with corp.fabnkam.com
A single Azure subscription named Sub1
A virtual network named Vnet1 in the East US Azure region
A virtual network named Vnet2 in the West Europe Azure region
An instance of Azure Front Door named FD1 that has Azure Web Application Firewall (WAR enabled
A Microsoft Sentinel workspace
An Azure SQL database named ClaimsDB that contains a table named ClaimDetails
20 virtual machines that are configured as application servers and are NOT onboarded to
Microsoft Defender for Cloud
A resource group named TestRG that is used for testing purposes only
An Azure Virtual Desktop host pool that contains personal assigned session hosts
All the resources in Sub1 are in either the East US or the West Europe region.
Partners
Fabrikam has contracted a company named Contoso, Ltd. to develop applications. Contoso has the following infrastructure-.
An Azure AD tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com
An Amazon Web Services (AWS) implementation named ContosoAWS1 that contains AWS EC2
instances used to host test workloads for the applications of Fabrikam
Developers at Contoso will connect to the resources of Fabrikam to test or update applications. The
developers will be added to a security Group named Contoso Developers in
fabrikam.onmicrosoft.com that will be assigned to roles in Sub1.
The ContosoDevelopers group is assigned the db.owner role for the ClaimsDB database.
Compliance Event
Fabrikam deploys the following compliance environment:
Defender for Cloud is configured to assess all the resources in Sub1 for compliance to the HIPAA HITRUST standard.
Currently, resources that are noncompliant with the HIPAA HITRUST standard are remediated manually.
Qualys is used as the standard vulnerability assessment tool for servers.
Problem Statements
The secure score in Defender for Cloud shows that all the virtual machines generate the following
recommendation-. Machines should have a vulnerability assessment solution.
All the virtual machines must be compliant in Defender for Cloud.
ClaimApp Deployment
Fabrikam plans to implement an internet-accessible application named ClaimsApp that will have the following specification
ClaimsApp will be deployed to Azure App Service instances that connect to Vnetl and Vnet2.
Users will connect to ClaimsApp by using a URL of https://claims.fabrikam.com.
ClaimsApp will access data in ClaimsDB.
ClaimsDB must be accessible only from Azure virtual networks.
The app services permission for ClaimsApp must be assigned to ClaimsDB.
Application Development Requirements
Fabrikam identifies the following requirements for application development:
Azure DevTest labs will be used by developers for testing.
All the application code must be stored in GitHub Enterprise.
Azure Pipelines will be used to manage application deployments.
All application code changes must be scanned for security vulnerabilities, including application
code or configuration files that contain secrets in clear text. Scanning must be done at the time the
code is pushed to a repository.
Security Requirement
Fabrikam identifies the following security requirements:
Internet-accessible applications must prevent connections that originate in North Korea.
Only members of a group named InfraSec must be allowed to configure network security groups
(NSGs} and instances of Azure Firewall, VJM. And Front Door in Sub1.
Administrators must connect to a secure host to perform any remote administration of the virtual
machines. The secure host must be provisioned from a custom operating system image.
AWS Requirements
Fabrikam identifies the following security requirements for the data hosted in ContosoAWSV.
Notify security administrators at Fabrikam if any AWS EC2 instances are noncompliant with secure
score recommendations.
Ensure that the security administrators can query AWS service logs directly from the Azure environment.
Contoso Developer Requirements
Fabrikam identifies the following requirements for the Contoso developers;
Every month, the membership of the ContosoDevelopers group must be verified.
The Contoso developers must use their existing contoso.onmicrosoft.com credentials to access the resources in Sub1.
The Comoro developers must be prevented from viewing the data in a column named
MedicalHistory in the ClaimDetails table.
Compliance Requirement
Fabrikam wants to automatically remediate the virtual machines in Sub1 to be compliant with the
HIPPA HITRUST standard. The virtual machines in TestRG must be excluded from the compliance assessment.

QUESTION 1

You need to recommend a solution to meet the security requirements for the InfraSec group.
What should you use to delegate the access?

A. a subscription
B. a custom role-based access control (RBAC) role
C. a resource group
D. a management group

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to scan the application code. The solution must meet the
application development requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Key Vault
B. GitHub Advanced Security
C. Application Insights in Azure Monitor
D. Azure DevTest Labs

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the virtual machine issue. What should you include in the recommendation? (Choose Two)
A. Onboard the virtual machines to Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.
B. Onboard the virtual machines to Azure Arc.
C. Create a device compliance policy in Microsoft Endpoint Manager.
D. Enable the Qualys scanner in Defender for Cloud.

Answer: A, B

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
What should you create in Azure AD to meet the Contoso developer requirements?
Answer:
Box 1: A synced user account -
Need to use a synched user account.
Box 2: An access review

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You are evaluating the security of ClaimsApp.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE; Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:

QUESTION 6

You need to recommend a solution to secure the MedicalHistory data in the ClaimsDetail table. The
solution must meet the Contoso developer requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
B. Always Encrypted
C. row-level security (RLS)
D. dynamic data masking
E. data classification

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You need to recommend a solution to meet the AWS requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:

QUESTION 8

You need to recommend a solution to meet the security requirements for the virtual machines.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. an Azure Bastion host
B. a network security group (NSG)
C. just-in-time (JIT) VM access
D. Azure Virtual Desktop

Answer: A


QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You need to recommend a solution to meet the requirements for connections to ClaimsDB.
What should you recommend using for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options
in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
Explanation:

QUESTION 10

HOTSPOT
You need to recommend a solution to meet the compliance requirements.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Monday, November 27, 2023

1Z0-1115-23 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Multicloud Architect Associate Exam

 

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 60 minutes
Exam Price: $
Number of Questions: 30
Passing Score: 65%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Certified Multicloud Architect Associate

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Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1115-23
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2023 Multicloud Architect Associate certification is designed to test an individual's expertise in designing and implementing Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) multicloud solutions. This certification aims to evaluate the candidate's ability to use a combination of cloud services to build a multicloud environment.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Become an OCI Multicloud Architect Associate

Practice Exam
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
The following table lists the exam objectives and their weightage.
Objectives % in Exam
Introduction to Multi-cloud 10%
Core OCI Services 20%
Multicloud Connection Options 30%
Oracle Database Service for Azure 40%

Introduction to Multi-cloud [10%]
Understand multi-cloud and its benefits
Explain common multi-cloud use cases and their implementation in OCI

Core OCI Services [20%]
Federate OCI Identity Domains with identity providers
Implement and manage VCN components
Administer OCI Database services, such as Base Databases, Autonomous Databases, MySQL Database

Multi-cloud Connection Options [30%]
Understand OCI multi-cloud connectivity options, such as Site-to-Site VPN and FastConnect
Implement OCI-Azure Interconnect

Oracle Database Service for Azure [40%]
Explain the prerequisites and onboarding options for Oracle Database Service for Azure
Implement Oracle Database Service for Azure
Configure common Oracle Database Service for Azure database management tasks

 


Sample Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of the SAML metadata file in the OCI Federation setup with Azure Active Directory (AD)?

A. It is used to exchange metadata information between Azure AD and OCI.
B. It is used to configure attribute mapping between Azure AD and OCI.
C. It is used to establish trust between Azure AD and OCI.
D. It is used to store user credentials for authentication.

Answer: A

Explanation:
In general, SAML metadata is used to share configuration information between the Identity Pro-vider (IdP) and the Service Provider (SP).

QUESTION 2

A company wants to seamlessly build a private interconnection between their OCI and Microsoft
Azure environments with consistent performance and low latency. They want to enable their cloud
engineers to set up Single Sign-On (SSO) between Microsoft Azure and OCI for their Oracle applications,
such as PeopleSoft, JD Edwards EnterpriseOne, and E-Business Suite.
Which technology integration can the company use to achieve this goal?

A. Direct Connect and Azure VPN Gateway
B. OCI Site-to-Site VPN and Azure Site-to-Site VPN
C. Oracle FastConnect and Azure ExpressRoute
D. Cloud Interconnect and Virtual WAN

Answer: C

Explanation:
By using Oracle FastConnect and Azure ExpressRoute, customers can seamlessly build a private
interconnection between their OCI and Microsoft Azure environments. The Interconnect also enables
joint customers to take advantage of a unified identity and access management platform that
leads to cost savings. Cloud engineers can set up SSO between Microsoft Azure and OCI for their
Oracle applications, such as PeopleSoft, JD Edwards EnterpriseOne, and E-Business Suite. Having a
federated SSO makes the integration seamless and allows users to authenticate only once to access
multiple applications, without signing in separately to access each application.

QUESTION 3
Which components are required to establish a Site-to-Site VPN connection in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure?

A. Internet Gateway, Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), and IPsec tunnel
B. Internet Gateway (IG), Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway, and IPsec tun-nel
C. Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG), Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), and IPsec tunnel
D. Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG), NAT Gateway, and IPsec tunnel

Answer: C

Explanation:
Site-to-Site VPN Components:
CPE OBJECT: At your end of Site-to-Site VPN is the actual device in your on-premises network
(whether hardware or software). The term customer-premises equipment (CPE) is commonly used in
some industries to refer to this type of on-premises equipment.
DYNAMIC ROUTING GATEWAY (DRG): At Oracle's end of Site-to-Site VPN is a virtual router called a
dynamic routing gateway, which is the gateway into your VCN from your on-premises network.
IPSEC CONNECTION: After creating the CPE object and DRG, you connect them by creating an IPSec
connection, which you can think of as a parent object that represents the Site-to-Site VPN.
TUNNEL: An IPSec tunnel is used to encrypt traffic between secure IPSec endpoints. Oracle cre-ates
two tunnels in each IPSec connection for redundancy.
So, Internet Gateway, NAT Gateway are NOT valid Site-to-Site VPN Components.
Hence, Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG), Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), and IPsec tunnel is
the CORRECT answer.

QUESTION 4
What should you do to prepare your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
for potential security risks when connected to a Microsoft Azure VNet?

A. Allow all traffic from the Azure VNet without restrictions.
B. Limit all inbound and outbound traffic from the Azure VNet to expected and well-defined traffic.
C. Remove all OCI security rules.
D. Disable the connection between Azure VNet and OCI VCN.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Controlling Traffic Flow Over the Connection
Even if a connection has been established between your VCN and VNet, you can control the packet
flow over the connection with route tables in your VCN. For example, you can restrict traf-fic to only
specific subnets in the VNet.
Controlling the Specific Types of Traffic Allowed
It's important that you ensure that all outbound and inbound traffic with the VNet is intended or
expected and well defined. Implement Azure network security group and Oracle security rules that
explicitly state the types of traffic one cloud can send to the other and accept from the other.

QUESTION 5
Which is a database service that CANNOT be provisioned in the Oracle Public Cloud?

A. Autonomous Database on Dedicated Infrastructure
B. Exadata Database Service on Shared Infrastructure
C. Autonomous Database on Shared Infrastructure
D. Exadata Database Service on Dedicated Infrastructure

Answer: B

Explanation:
As you can see in the screenshot, Exadata Database Service on Shared Infrastructure is NOT supported.


Students reviews and Discussions

Packiam Vijendran 1 months ago - Malaysia

Passed the exam yesterday, 95% of the question were from this site. Note: Pay more attention to all the community discussions on each question, instead of the answers provided by the examtopics and I strongly suggest to get the contributor access.
upvoted 4 times

Javier Cardaba Enjuto 2 months, 1 week ago - Spain
Excellent pre-exam session tool
upvoted 2 times

Palanisamy Arulmohan 1 months, 1 week ago - USA

I passed today, 94 questions asked and 99% of them were in this dump.
3 labs: BGP (as-override), HSRP, OSPF (without network statement)
upvoted 4 times

peppinauz 3 months, 2 weeks ago
I pass my exam, dump is valid about 90-95%. review the community answers!!
upvoted 6 times

Oberoi Ankit3 months, 3 weeks ago - USA Texas
Passed exam today dump still accurate. almost all the questions are here, some are overcomplicated or incomplete on the site,
upvoted 4 times

Monday, November 20, 2023

AZ-140 Configuring and Operating Windows Virtual Desktop on Microsoft Azure Exam Skills measured prior to October 26, 2023

 

AZ-140 Configuring and Operating Windows Virtual Desktop on Microsoft Azure Exam Skills measured prior to October 26, 2023

Skills measured prior to October 26, 2023

Audience profile
Candidates for this exam are server or desktop administrators with subject matter expertise in designing, implementing, managing, and maintaining Microsoft Azure Virtual Desktop experiences and remote apps for any device.

To deliver these experiences, they work closely with Azure administrators, Azure architects, Microsoft 365 administrators, and Azure security engineers.

Candidates for this exam should have experience with Azure technologies, including virtualization, networking, identity, storage, and resiliency. They should be able to manage end-user desktop environments, including delivering applications and configuring user settings. These professionals use the Azure portal, templates, scripting, and command-line tools to manage an Azure Virtual Desktop deployment.

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Skills at a glance
Plan and implement an Azure Virtual Desktop infrastructure (40–45%)
Plan and implement identity and security (15–20%)
Plan and implement user environments and apps (20–25%)
Monitor and maintain an Azure Virtual Desktop infrastructure (10–15%)

Plan and implement an Azure Virtual Desktop infrastructure (40–45%)
Plan, implement, and manage networking for Azure Virtual Desktop
Assess network capacity and speed requirements for Azure Virtual Desktop
Calculate and recommend a configuration for network requirements
Plan and implement Azure virtual network connectivity
Manage connectivity to the internet and on-premises networks
Plan and implement RDP Shortpath and quality of service (QoS) policies
Plan and implement name resolution for Azure Virtual Desktop
Monitor and troubleshoot network connectivity
Plan and implement storage for Azure Virtual Desktop user data
Plan storage for Azure Virtual Desktop user data
Implement storage for FSLogix components
Implement storage accounts
Implement file shares
Implement Azure NetApp Files
Plan host pools and session hosts
Recommend resource groups, subscriptions, and management groups
Recommend an operating system (OS) for an Azure Virtual Desktop implementation
Recommend an appropriate licensing model for Azure Virtual Desktop based on requirements
Plan a host pools architecture
Calculate and recommend a configuration for performance requirements
Calculate and recommend a configuration for Azure Virtual Machines capacity requirements
Implement host pools and session hosts
Create host pools and session hosts by using the Azure portal
Automate creation of Azure Virtual Desktop hosts and host pools by using PowerShell, Azure CLI, Azure Resource Manager templates (ARM templates), and Bicep
Configure host pool and session host settings
Apply a Windows client or Windows Server license to a session host
Create and manage session host images
Create a golden image manually
Create a golden image by using Azure VM Image Builder
Modify a session host image
Plan and implement lifecycle management for images
Apply OS and application updates to an image
Create a session host by using a golden image
Plan and implement image storage
Create and manage Azure Compute Gallery

Plan and implement identity and security (15–20%)
Plan and implement identity integration
Choose an identity management and authentication method
Identify Azure Virtual Desktop requirements for Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Microsoft Entra Domain Services, and Microsoft Entra ID
Plan and implement Azure roles and role-based access control (RBAC) for Azure Virtual Desktop
Plan and implement Microsoft Entra Conditional Access policies for connections to Azure Virtual Desktop
Plan and implement multifactor authentication in Azure Virtual Desktop
Manage roles, groups, and rights assignments on Azure Virtual Desktop session hosts
Plan and implement security
Plan, implement, and manage security for Azure Virtual Desktop session hosts by using Microsoft Defender for Cloud
Configure Microsoft Defender Antivirus for session hosts
Implement and manage network security for connections to Azure Virtual Desktop
Configure Azure Bastion or just-in-time (JIT) for administrative access to session hosts
Plan and implement Windows Threat Protection features on Azure Virtual Desktop session hosts, including Windows Defender Application Control

Plan and implement user environments and apps (20–25%)
Plan and implement FSLogix
Recommend FSLogix configuration
Install and configure FSLogix
Configure Profile Containers
Configure Office Containers
Configure Cloud Cache
Plan and implement user experience and client settings
Choose an Azure Virtual Desktop client and deployment method
Deploy and troubleshoot Azure Virtual Desktop clients
Configure device redirection
Configure printing and Universal Print
Configure user settings through Group Policy and Microsoft Intune policies
Configure Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) properties on a host pool
Configure session timeout properties
Implement the Start Virtual Machine on Connect feature
Assign and unassign personal desktops for users
Install and configure apps on a session host
Choose a method for deploying an app to Azure Virtual Desktop
Configure dynamic application delivery by using MSIX app attach
Publish an application as a RemoteApp
Implement FSLogix application masking
Implement and manage OneDrive, including multisession environments
Implement and manage Microsoft Teams, including AV redirect
Implement and manage Microsoft 365 apps on Azure Virtual Desktop session hosts
Implement and manage browsers for Azure Virtual Desktop sessions
Create and configure an application group
Assign users to application groups

Monitor and maintain an Azure Virtual Desktop infrastructure (10–15%)
Monitor and manage Azure Virtual Desktop services
Configure log collection and analysis for Azure Virtual Desktop session hosts
Configure Azure Virtual Desktop monitoring by using Azure Monitor
Monitor Azure Virtual Desktop by using Azure Monitor
Customize Azure Monitor workbooks for Azure Virtual Desktop monitoring
Monitor Azure Virtual Desktop by using Azure Advisor
Optimize session host capacity and performance
Implement autoscaling in host pools
Monitor and manage active sessions and application groups
Configure automation for Azure Virtual Desktop
Automate management of host pools, session hosts, and user sessions by using PowerShell and Azure CLI
Plan, implement, and maintain business continuity
Recommend an update strategy for session hosts
Plan and implement a disaster recovery plan for Azure Virtual Desktop
Plan for multi-region implementation
Design a backup strategy for Azure Virtual Desktop
Configure backup and restore for FSLogix user profiles, personal virtual desktop infrastructures (VDIs), and golden images


Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
You plan to implement the FSLogix profile containers for the Seattle office.
Which storage account should you use?

A. storage2
B. storage4
C. storage3
D. storage1
Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which role should you assign to Operator2 to meet the technical requirements?

A. Desktop Virtualization Session Host Operator
B. Desktop Virtualization Host Pool Contributor
C. Desktop Virtualization User Session Operator
D. Desktop Virtualization Contributor

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to configure the device redirection settings. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
Where should you configure the settings?

A. Workspace1
B. MontrealUsers
C. Group1
D. Pool1

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to configure the virtual machines that have the Pool1 prefix. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you use?

A. Windows Virtual Desktop automation task
B. Virtual machine auto-shutdown
C. Service Health in Azure Monitor
D. Azure Automation

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which setting should you modify for VNET4 before you can deploy Pool4?

A. Service endpoints
B. Address space
C. DNS servers
D. Access control (1AM)
E. Peerings

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which three PowerShell modules should you install on Server1 to meet the technical requirements?
Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Pester
B. RemoteDesktop
C. ServerManager
D. ActiveDirectory
E. Hyper-V

Answer: ADE


Students Reviews / Discussion

Mike 3 months, 3 weeks ago - UGanda

430/500, the 60 questions are within the 100 questions of this dump.
upvoted 1 times

Mohammed Deeia 4 months, 1 week ago - Kuwait
Above 90% of questions are valid until now but review all the questions, a some of them have wrong answers.
upvoted 1 times

SHARON GRUBER 6 months, 1 week ago - United States
They`re valid. 465/500 passing score. Thanks
upvoted 2 times

Lembede 6 months, 2 weeks ago - South Africa
They`re valid. 439/500 passing score. Thanks ! DYOR
upvoted 1 times

Sharan Telukunta 9 months, 3 weeks ago - New Jersey
Passed with 448/500. Do independent research on all questions.
upvoted 1 times

Term moxa 10 months ago - Baltimore
Passed with 439/500. Do independent research on all questions.
upvoted 1 times

Christoph Spirig 10 months, 1 week ago - Switzerland
Passed with 457/500 Dump is valid, Check the discussions and search in Internet
upvoted 1 times

Mama Brien10 months, 1 week ago - Singapore
Passed with 450/ 500 , All questions are in this dump. Check the discussions and do your research.
upvoted 1 times

Monday, August 29, 2022

700-760 Cisco Security Architecture for Account Managers Exam

 

700-760 SAAM
Security Architecture for Account Managers
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English

Exam overview

This exam is for the required knowledge across the Cisco Security portfolio for a registered partner organization to obtain the Security specialization in the AM role.

Exam topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Threat Landscape and Security Issues
1.1 Identify the role of digitization in cyber security
1.2 Identify cyber security challenges
1.3 Identify causes of fragmented security
1.4 Identify security opportunities and obstacles

15% 2.0 Selling Cisco Security
2.1 Identify how Cisco supports practice development
2.2 Identify areas of the Cisco security portfolio
2.3 Identify Cisco programs for partner support
2.4 Identify Cisco programs for partner profitability

15% 3.0 Customer Conversations
3.1 Identify Cisco portfolio components
3.2 Identify Cisco security solutions
3.3 Identify customer security challenges
3.4 Identify components of Cisco’s best-in-class technology

15% 4.0 IoT Security

4.1 Identify IoT solutions critical to business
4.2 Identify the evolution of and need for IoT security
4.3 Identify how Cisco IoT Security solutions provide layered protection
4.4 Identify components of Cisco’s IoT security

15% 5.0 Cisco Zero Trust
5.1 Identify the value of and drivers for trust-centric security
5.2 Identify the value of zero trust
5.3 Identify zero-trust solutions
5.4 Identify Cisco Zero Trust outcomes

20% 6.0 Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio
6.1 Identify the requirements of modern network environments
6.2 Identify the challenges of next generation networks
6.3 Identify Cisco solutions for next generation network security
6.4 Identify Cisco security solution sets

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Security Architecture for Account Managers
Cisco Partners can access Sales Connect for access to a variety of training content to help them prepare for this exam.

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QUESTION 1
Which component of StealthWatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat
response times

A. Network control
B. Investigation
C. Anomaly detection
D. Threat protection

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which three products are Cisco Visibility & Enforcement solutions (Choose three.)

A. Web Security
B. AnyConnect
C. TrustSec
D. Identity Services Engine (ISE)
E. Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW)
F. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System (NGIPS)
G. Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints

Answer: B,C,D


QUESTION 3
Which three products are in Cisco's Web & Email Security portfolio (Choose three.)

A. Meraki
B. ESA
C. Investigate
D. WSA
E. Umbrella
F. CES

Answer: B,D,F


QUESTION 4
What is used to reduce attack surfaces

A. Access
B. Remediation
C. Segmentation
D. Device trust

Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two benefits of flexible purchasing does Cisco provide (Choose two.)

A. Simplify the datacenter
B. Meet immediate needs
C. Roll out more solutions
D. Plan for the future
E. Reduce training needs

Answer: B,D

Thursday, August 25, 2022

JN0-349 Juniper Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist Exam

 

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code: JN0-349
Prerequisite Certification: JNCIA-Junos
Delivered by: Pearson VUE
Exam Length: 90 minutes
Exam Type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions: Junos 21.1


Recertification
Juniper certifications are valid for three years. For more information, see Recertification.

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Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIS-ENT certification exam.

Exam Objective
Layer 2 Switching or VLANs

Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 2 switching for the Junos OS
Bridging components
Frame processing

Describe the concepts, benefits, or functionality of VLANs
Ports
Tagging
Native VLANs and voice VLANs
Inter-VLAN routing

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot Layer 2 switching or VLANs
Interfaces and ports
VLANs
Inter-VLAN Routing

Spanning Tree
Describe the concepts, benefits, operation, or functionality of the Spanning Tree Protocol
STP and RSTP concepts
Port roles and states
BPDUs
Convergence and reconvergence

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Spanning Tree
STP
RSTP

Layer 2 Security
Identify the concepts, benefits or operation of various Layer 2 protection or security features
BPDU, loop or root protection
Port security, including MAC limiting, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) or IP source guard
MACsec
Storm control

Identify the concepts, benefits or operation of Layer 2 firewall filters
Filter types
Processing order
Match criteria and actions

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Layer 2 security
Protection
Port security
Storm control
Firewall filter configuration and application

Protocol Independent Routing
Identify the concepts, operation or functionality of various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Martian addresses
Routing instances, including RIB groups
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

OSPF
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of OSPF
Link-state database
OSPF packet types
Router ID
Adjacencies and neighbors
Designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR)
OSPF area and router types
Realms
LSA packet types

Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot OSPF
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

IS-IS
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of IS-IS
Link-state database
IS-IS PDUs
TLVs
Adjacencies and neighbors
Levels and areas
Designated intermediate system (DIS)
Metrics

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot IS-IS
Levels, interfaces and adjacencies
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

BGP
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of BGP
BGP basic operation
BGP message types
Attributes
Route/path selection process
IBGP and EBGP functionality and interaction

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot BGP
Groups and peers
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

Tunnels
Identify the concepts, requirements or functionality of IP tunneling
Tunneling applications and considerations
GRE
IP-IP

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot IP tunnels
GRE
IP-IP
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands, logging)

High Availability
Identify the concepts, benefits, applications or requirements for high availability in a Junos OS environment
Link aggregation groups (LAG)
Redundant trunk groups (RTG)
Virtual Chassis
Graceful restart (GR)
Graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)
Nonstop active routing (NSR)
Nonstop bridging (NSB)
Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Unified In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU)

Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot high availability components
LAG and RTG
Virtual Chassis
GR, GRES, NSB, and NSR
VRRP
ISSU
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., trace options, show commands, logging)


QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of 802.3ad link aggregation? (Choose two)

A. It increases bandwidth
B. It ensures symmetrical paths
C. It simplifies interface configuration.
D. It creates physical layer redundancy.

Answer: A, D

Aggregating multiple links between physical interfaces creates a single logical point-to-point trunk
link or a LAG. The LAG balances traffic across the member links within an aggregated Ethernet bundle
and effectively increases the uplink bandwidth. Another advantage of link aggregation is increased
availability, because the LAG is composed of multiple member links. If one member link fails, the LAG
continues to carry traffic over the remaining links.
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/us/en/software/junos/interfaces-ethernetswitches/
topics/topic-map/switches-interface-aggregated.html


QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about IP-IP tunnels?

A. Intermediate devices must have a route to the destination address of the traffic being tunneled.
B. Intermediate devices must have a route to both the tunnel source address and the tunnel destination address.
C. Intermediate devices must have a route to the tunnel destination address but do not require a route to the tunnel source address.
D. Intermediate devices must have a route to the tunnel source address but do not require a route to the tunnel destination address

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You have a conference room with an open network port that is used by employees to connect to the
network. You are concerned about rogue switches being connected to this port
Which two features should you enable on your switch to limit access to this port? (Choose two.)

A. DHCP snooping
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. MAC limiting
D. 802.1X

Answer: A, B


QUESTION 4
Which two port security features use the DHCP snooping database for additional port security?
(Choose two.)

A. dynamic ARP inspection
B. MACsec
C. IP Source guard
D. MAC learning

Answer: A, C


 

Tuesday, August 23, 2022

5V0-23.20 VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist Exam

 

VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist
VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist exam validates a candidate's knowledge about how vSphere with Tanzu can be used to orchestrate the delivery of Kubernetes clusters and containerized applications in a vSphere environment as well as their knowledge of deploying and managing VMware vSphere® with Tanzu.

Product: VMware vSphere with Tanzu
Associated Certification: VMware Certified Specialist - vSphere with Tanzu 2022

Exam Overview
Exam : 5V0-23.20 : VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist
Language : English
Number of Questions : 62
Format : Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
Duration : 125 Minutes
Passing Score : 300

Passing Score –
VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300.
Your exam may contain unscored questions in addition to the scored questions, this is a standard testing practice. You will not know which questions are unscored, your exam results will reflect your performance on the scored questions only.

Exam Details:
The VMware vSphere with Tanzu Specialist exam (5V0-23.20) which leads to VMware Certified Specialist - vSphere with Tanzu 2022 badge is a62-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Exam time is 125 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Badge Information:
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate:
The Minimally Qualified Candidate(MQC) has basic knowledge of Kubernetes and containers, at least 12 months of experience with vSphere. The MQC also has experience with NSX-T and network, virtualization and OS experience or education. Candidates should have completed all recommended training courses for this credential and hold a VCP-DCV 2020.
The successful candidate will likely hold additional industry-recognized IT certifications or accreditations.
The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections:
This exam contains the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 Introduction - No testable objectives for this section
Section 2 Introduction to Containers and Kubernetes - No testable objectives for this section

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Section 3 Introduction to vSphere with Tanzu

Objective 3.1: Identify the purpose and role of a Supervisor Cluster.
Objective 3.2: Identify the characteristics of the Control Plane VMs.
Objective 3.3: Given a scenario about a network, identify the workload, management, and front end.
Objective 3.4: Identify the purposes and differences between workload, management, and front end networks.
Objective 3.5: Identify the purpose and role of a Spherelet.
Objective 3.6: Identify the prerequisites and requirements to enable workload management.
Objective 3.7: Identify the characteristics and uses of kubectl CLI.
Objective 3.8: Identify how to authenticate to vSphere with Tanzu using kubectl.
Objective 3.9: Identify how to navigate namespaces using kubectl.
Objective 3.10: Given a scenario, identify the VMware solution for managing TKC.

Section 4 vSphere with Tanzu Core Services

Objective 4.1: Identify the characteristics of vSphere namespaces.
Objective 4.2: Identify the process to create a namespace.
Objective 4.3: Identify the prerequisites to create a namespace.
Objective 4.4: Given a scenario, identify the resources that can be limited in a namespace.
Objective 4.5: Given a scenario, identify the resources that can be limited for a Kubernetes object within a namespace.
Objective 4.6: Given a scenario, identify the roles that can be applied to user of a vSphere namespace.
Objective 4.7: Identify the process to allocate storage to a namespace.
Objective 4.8: Identify the characteristics of vSphere pods and CRX.
Objective 4.9: Identify the process to create a vSphere pod.
Objective 4.10: Identify the methods to scale out a vSphere pod.
Objective 4.11: Identify the characteristics of Cloud Native Storage.
Objective 4.12: Identify the relationship between a storage policy and storage class.
Objective 4.13: Given a scenario, identify the method that should be used to create a storage policy.
Objective 4.14: Identify how to view how much of the quota is being used in a given vSphere namespace.
Objective 4.15: Identify characteristics of persistent volumes in vSphere.
Objective 4.16: Identify use cases for persistent volumes.
Objective 4.17: Identify the process to manage a persistent volume claim.
Objective 4.18: Identify the method to view all the Persistent Volume claims in a vSphere environment.
Objective 4.19: Identify the characteristics of the NSX container plugin.
Objective 4.20: Identify the relationship between vSphere namespaces and NSX segments.
Objective 4.21: Identify the supervisor network topology when using NSX-T.
Objective 4.22: Identify the characteristics of Kubernetes services.
Objective 4.23: Identify the characteristics of Kubernetes network policies.
Objective 4.24: Identify the characteristics and components of vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere distributed switch.
Objective 4.25: Identify the purpose of external load balancer in vSphere with Tanzu.
Objective 4.26: Identify the characteristics of workload load balancers.
Objective 4.27: Identify the characteristics of workload networks.
Objective 4.28: Identify the relationship between workload networks and vSphere Namespaces.
Objective 4.29: Identify the supervisor network topology when using vSphere Distributed Switch Network Topology.
Objective 4.30: Identify the vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere Distributed Switch Network Requirements.
Objective 4.31: Identify the vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere Distributed Switch Prerequisites
Objective 4.32: Identify the process to enable vSphere with Tanzu on vSphere Distributed Switch
Objective 4.33: Identify the characteristics of Harbor.
Objective 4.34: Identify the use cases for an image registry.
Objective 4.35: Identify the process to enable the Harbor image registry.
Objective 4.36: Identify the integration between Harbor and vSphere with Tanzu.
Objective 4.37: Identify the process to push images to Harbor
Objective 4.38: Identify the process to deploy images from Harbor

Section 5 Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service

Objective 5.1: Identify the characteristics of the Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Service.
Objective 5.2: Identify the differences and similarities of vSphere pods and Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters
Objective 5.3: Identify the relationship between supervisor clusters and TKC.
Objective 5.4: Identify the process to enable TKC versions.
Objective 5.5: Identify the characteristics of virtual machine class types for TKC.
Objective 5.6: Identify the process to deploy the TKC.
Objective 5.7: Identify the process to authenticate to a TKC.
Objective 5.8: Identify the process to Scale out a TKC.
Objective 5.9: Identify the process to Scale in a TKC.
Objective 5.10: Identify the process to upgrade a TKC.
Objective 5.11: Given a scenario with requirements, identify the kubectl command that should be used.

Section 6 Monitoring and Troubleshooting in vSphere with Tanzu - No testable objectives for this section


Section 7 vSphere with Tanzu Life Cycle
Objective 7.1: Identify the process to upgrade the vSphere with Tanzu supervisor cluster.
Objective 7.2: Identify the process to perform certificate management for vSphere with Tanzu supervisor cluster.

Question: 1
Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

A. R81 Management API
B. Identity Awareness Web Services API
C. Open REST API
D. OPSEC SDK

Answer: C

Question: 2
SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based
algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile
devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A. Management Dashboard
B. Gateway
C. Personal User Storage
D. Behavior Risk Engine

Answer: C

Question: 3
What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

A. SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
B. SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
C. SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
D. API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

Answer: B

Question: 4
What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A. Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware
B. Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers
C. Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.
D. Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Answer: D
 

Monday, August 22, 2022

500-560 Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam

 

500-560 OCSE
Associated Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Duration: 60 minutes (45 - 55 questions)
Available languages: English

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of the skills needed by an engineer to understand the necessary information to support the express specialization networking business customer.
This exam covers Switching, Routing, Wireless, Cloud and Security solutions for engagements with smaller business customers.

Exam topics
15% 1.0 Switching Overview and Features

1.1 Understand the market for switching portfolio
1.2 Explain the switching product portfolio and the solutions it enables
1.3 Identify the tools and resources available for switching

15% 2.0 Routing Overview and Features
2.1 Understand the routing overview
2.2 Describe the routing product portfolio
2.3 Explain the routing positioning
2.4 Identify the tools and resources available

25% 3.0 Wireless Overview and Features
3.1 Identify Cisco’s products in the wireless market
3.2 Describe and explain the Cisco wireless product portfolio and positioning
3.3 Describe, explain, and identify Cisco Mobility Express, wireless LAN controller, and access points features
3.4 Define the features and benefits of Cisco DNA Spaces
3.5 Define the features and benefits of Cisco DNA Assurance

35% 4.0 Meraki Overview and Products
4.1 Describe Meraki MX product mix and solutions
4.2 Describe Meraki MS product mix and solutions
4.3 Describe Meraki MR product mix and solutions
4.4 Describe Meraki SM product mix and solutions
4.5 Describe Meraki MV product mix and solutions
4.6 Explain Meraki licensing, support, and warranty
4.7 Identify the Meraki sales cycle

10% 5.0 Security Overview and Features
5.1 Describe the Branch Threat Defense Umbrella
5.2 Explain threat-centric security approach and security architecture

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Question: 1
What is one of the key drivers of growing security threats in the market?

A. comprehensive security solutions
B. security solution fragmentation
C. increased demand for cybersecurity professionals
D. hardware with integrated security solution

Answer: B

Question: 2
What feature of the Catalyst 2960-L allows customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center
B. on-box web interface for configuration
C. flexible deployments with Stackwise-160
D. complete CLI support

Answer: B

Question: 3
What is one typical need of a small branch?

A. multiple network services integrated into a single device
B. comprehensive subscription-based services
C. multiple devices for optimal flexibility
D. ability for users to access the majority of resources at off-site data storage

Answer: A

Question: 4
What is one advantage of Umbrella branch package?

A. prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control
B. prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses
C. deploy the branch package on a Cisco ISR4K router in 4 easy steps
D. no client side configuration required

Answer: B

Question: 5
What is a key feature of the Meraki MV Dashboard?

A. drag and drop camera feeds to create video walls with up to 16 cameras per layout
B. bulk configuration changes and software updates
C. device security and location analytics in a single pane of glass
D. single pane of glass showing root cause analysis for all connected wireless clients

Answer: A