DEA-5TT1 Associate - Networking Exam

 

Dell EMC DCA-Networking

Certification Overview
This certification validates the ability to perform basic skill level tasks in installing, configuring, maintaining and troubleshooting Dell EMC Networking products

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Pass the following Exam
• DEA-5TT1 Associate - Networking Exam

Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of December 14, 2018.

Other Certification Recommendations
This certification will qualify towards the following Specialist level certifications in the Dell EMC Proven Professional Program
• Specialist – Infrastructure Security Version 1.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Campus Networking Version 1.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Data Center Networking Version 1.0

The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements.
*Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate - Networking track.
This exam focuses on basic Networking foundational skills and portfolio introduction.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• Dell EMC Networking Switches

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Networks – The Basics (7%)
• Explain the purpose and function of network devices such as switches and routers, WANs and LANs, and common Campus and Datacenter topologies
• Explain the purpose and basic operations of the OSI model
• Describe the concepts and use cases for Layer 2 - Data Link Layer, Discovery protocols

Ethernet Networking (7%)
• Describe Ethernet networking
• Describe the standards of how Ethernet operates and how addressing is used to move data on the Ethernet network

Switching Fundamentals and Creating a Switched Network (23%)
• Explain the reason for network switching and the process of moving frames within a switched network
• Explain how to differentiate between a broadcast domain and collision domain
• Explain how to select cabling and the cables that are certified for network connectivity
• Describe the concepts of VLANs, Spanning-Tree protocol, and Link Aggregation and how each functions within the network

Internet Protocol v4 and v6 (14%)
• Identify and describe the differences between private and public IP addressing, and describe classful and CIDR addressing
• Describe IPv4 addressing and explain the process of using IPv4 in the network
• Describe IPv6 addressing and explain the process of using IPv6 in the network

Transport Layer (7%)
• Describe the function of the Transport layers, how it supports host-to-host connectivity, and protocols used by the Transport layers and their use cases

IP Routing Technologies and Routing Protocols (15%)
• Describe basic routing concepts and explain how to interpret a routing table
• Identify and describe the differences between static and dynamic routing
• Identify and describe the classifications of routing protocols and how they are used to route within and between autonomous systems
• Explain the routing process used by RIPv2, OSPF, and BGP (link state and distance vector routing) routing protocols

IP and Network Services (7%)
• Describe the DHCP and NTP service and explain the configuration steps
• Describe Access Control Lists (ACLs) and Network Address Translation

Security, Authentication, and ACLs (3%)
• Describe the options and processes of securing access to the network

Switch Stacking, Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter, and Modular Switch Portfolio (10%)
• Describe the key concepts of stacking and the hardware required to configure stacking using OS 6, OS 9, and OS 10
• Describe the switch models that are part of the Dell EMC Campus, Datacenter, and Modular Switch portfolio

Dell EMC Switch Software, Configuration, and Management (7%)
Explain how software is used to configure and manage Dell EMC switches, and describe the steps to complete an initial switch configuration

Recommended Training
The following curriculum is recommended for candidates preparing to take this exam.

QUESTION 1
What are Network Address Translation (NAT) inside global addresses?

A. Addresses used by NAT router when sending frames to devices on the local network
B. Public IP addresses used by the local network to communicate with the Internet
C. Private IP addresses used by the local network
D. Pubic addresses used by other networks outside of the local network

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which topology is considered a best practice when stacking switches?

A. Ring
B. Cascade
C. Serial
D. Daisy-chain

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which option is used to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) to provide one-to-one mapping between local and global addresses?

A. Outside source static
B. Overload
C. Inside source static
D. PAT

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the valid range assigned to a client during a TCP connection?

A. 20 - 25
B. 443 - 1000
C. 1023 - 2024
D. 40000 - 65535

Correct Answer: D

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ServiceNow CIS-SAM Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset Management Exam

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset Management Professional (SAM) Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become a ServiceNow SAM Implementation Specialist.

Exam Purpose
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset Management (SAM) Professional exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow SAM Professional application.

Exam Audience
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset Management (SAM) Professional exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, sales engineers, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow SAM Certified Implementation Specialist.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset Management Professional exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• Software Asset Management Professional Fundamentals - *Upon completion, the candidate will be eligible to collect a voucher for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Software Asset Management

Professional exam.
Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following training course(s) and certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• ServiceNow Platform Subscription Model (On-demand)
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals (On-demand)
• Scripting in ServiceNow Fundamentals
• System Administration Advanced
• Discovery Fundamentals
• Software Asset Management (SAM) Getting Started (On-demand)
• Entitlement Import Basics for Software Asset Management (SAM) (On-demand)
• Discovery Basics for Software Asset Management (SAM) (On-demand)
• Software Asset Management (SAM) Reconciliation Troubleshooting (On-demand)
• SAM: Integration with SCCM for Reclamation and Distribution (On-demand)
• SAM Certification Test Prep (On-demand)

Additional Recommended Experience
• Six (6) months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least two ServiceNow deployment projects
• General familiarity with industry concepts, terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.

The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content. Learning Domain % of Exam 1 Software Asset Core Overview & Fundamentals
• Software Asset Management Basics
• Process Architecture
• Application Introduction and Data Integrity – Attributes and Sources for the Data
• Importing Data
• Software Discovery and Normalization
• Content Service

Operational Integration of Software Processes
• Contract and Change Management
• Service Catalog and Procurement
• Software Remediation

Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the Software Asset Management Professional Fundamentals training prerequisite.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.

The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam. This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own system provided that certain requirements are met.

NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.

Exam Structure
The exam consists of 60 questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.

Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response that most accurately answers the question.

Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.

Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.

QUESTION 1
A new Windows operating system machine blueprint is created and is ready to be added to a new service catalog.
Which step must be performed for the catalog item to be visible to business users?

A. Entitle the blueprint with all appropriate actions.
B. Publish the blueprint.
C. Entitle a business user to add the blueprint to the catalog.
D. Add the catalog item to the business group’s reservation.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A vRealize Orchestrator administrator is tasked with creating a workflow that processes sensitive information
that is subject to auditing. All workflow messages must be stored in the vRealize Orchestrator database.
How can the administrator ensure that all log messages generated by the workflow are stored in the database?

A. Configure a DEBUG level for the vRealize Orchestrator server.
B. Use System.log() when printing out messages.
C. Configure SQL plugin to write to the database directly.
D. Use Server.log() when printing out messages.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A system administrator created a tenant with URL name “fin” for the finance team. The fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the appliance is vra.rainpole.local.
What is the correct URL to log in to the finance tenant?

A. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/fin
B. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/finance
C. https://vra.rainpole.local/org/fin
D. https://vra.rainpole.local/vcac/org/finance

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What can be used in custom forms to prevent a user from entering too large a value (such as too much memory for a virtual machine)?

A. Constraints for a field
B. Regular expression for a field
C. Quotas for a field
D. Limitations for a field

Correct Answer: A
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1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations Exam

Citrix Education is pleased to announce the availability of the next generation Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V) certification based on Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7. Be among the first to take and pass the NEW 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations exam.

With the release of the 1Y0-403 exam, we’re also announcing the discontinuation of the English version of the 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations exam effective June 30, 2020.

What does this mean for you?
Individuals pursuing the Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V) certification will have the option of selecting one of two exams to validate their knowledge, skills and experience until June 30, 2020.

Option 1:
Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V) certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-403 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations.

Option 2:
Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V) certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-402 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations.

Effective June 30, 2020, with the discontinuation of the English version of the 1Y0-402 exam, Option 1 will be the only valid path to attain the CCE – V certification.

For individuals who already hold the CCE – V certification, you can update your certification and stay current by taking and passing only one exam — 1Y0-403 — or by attending the instructor-led training course CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration. Please note that the discontinuation of the 1Y0-402 exam will have no effect on your current CCE – V certification status. Your CCE – V certification will remain valid for three years from the date attained.

QUESTION 1
Scenario: Currently, the user interface for a Citrix Apps and Desktops environment is presented in English,
but a planned on-premises expansion in Poland will support 100 new users with a requirement to use all Polish interfaces.
Two constraints were identified by a Citrix Architect:
Network bandwidth is low and unstable.
Network latency is higher than 300 ms to the existing Site.
How should the architect deploy Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops for these users?

A. Install a StoreFront server in Poland.
B. Implement Citrix Cloud Gateway in Europe.
C. Add a Satellite Zone to the existing Site.
D. Create a new Site in Poland.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A planning document for deploying a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site specifies that it will
be created with 1 Site and different zones ini each of 3 regions. The IT team expects that each zone will host
825 concurrent user sessions, with no more than 28 concurrent session launches.
What is the minimum acceptable Site-to-Site bandwidth required between the Primary Zone and a Satellite Zone?

A. 1 Kbps
B. 200 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 8 Gbps

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect designed an active-passive Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment, where
the passive data center serves as the disaster recovery (DR) data center for all users. Twelve items have been configured:
Citrix ADC Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) to provide single URL direction to the active data center.
GSLB has health monitors configured for the load balanced servers.
Citrix Gateways are on both data centers.
Citrix ADC load balancing occurs for StoreFront and Delivery Controller XML services.
A single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site exists.
Four Delivery Controllers are members of the Site.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Primary Zone in the active data center.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Satellite Zone in the passive data center.
SQL is deployed in the active data center.
Local Host Cache is enabled.
Two StoreFront servers are deployed in each data center aggregating resources from the Delivery
Controllers in the respective data center.
Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines are deployed in both data centers and configured to register with
Delivery Controllers in their zone.
What would happen if the Delivery Controllers in the primary data center were turned off?

A. VDA machines from the primary data center would register with the Delivery Controllers in the passive data center.
B. StoreFront in the primary data center would still be able to launch sessions.
C. GSLB will start redirecting connections to the secondary data center.
D. GSLB will NOT identify that the Delivery Controllers are down and sessions CANNOT launch.

Correct Answer: B

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IIBA CCBA Certification of Capability in Business Analysis Exam

CCBA Eligibility

To earn the CCBA designation, candidates must:
Complete a minimum of 3,750 hours of Business Analysis work experience in the last 7 years.
Within these 3750 minimum hours required, a minimum of 900 hours must be completed in each of 2 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas OR, a minimum of 500 hours must be completed in each of 4 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas.
Complete a minimum of 21 hours of Professional Development within the last 4 years.
Provide references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.

CCBA Competencies

Is CCBA for you?
The CCBA certificate is for:

Individuals with an ECBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers, Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and Designers


QUESTION 1
You are currently working on creating the activity list for an initiative in your organization. What characteristic must be assigned to each task in your task list?

A. Procurement needs
B. Risk level
C. Unique number
D. Roles and responsibilities

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Each task in the task list should have a unique number to identify the specific task and it should have a description of what the task is.
Answer: B is incorrect. The risk level is not associated with the task list.
Answer: D is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are not included directly in the task list.
Answer: A is incorrect. Procurement needs are not included in the task list.

QUESTION 2
Shelly is the business analyst for her organization and she's working with Thomas to review the business
requirements. They are discussing the identified requirements, how the requirements will transition to the
operations, and the longevity of the solution. Thomas is concerned that the identified requirements may not
map to the desired future state of the organization. What business analysis task is Shelly facilitating in this scenario?

A. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition
B. Requirements quality assurance
C. Validate requirements
D. Stakeholder management

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Shelly and Thomas are performing the validate requirements task. This task helps to ensure that the
requirements map to the business goals and objectives, resolve the issue, and predict the longevity of the requirements to satisfy business needs.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is not a business analysis task called requirements quality assurance.
Answer: A is incorrect. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition is a task to ensure that the requirements are
clear and precise enough to create tests and inspect to know that the work has been completed.
Answer: D is incorrect. Stakeholder management is the management of stakeholders' issues, conflicts,
queries, concerns, threats, and perceived threats about the requirements.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are documented approaches to the business analysis work? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

A. Deming's Quality Circle
B. Lean
C. Six Sigma
D. Waterfall approach

Correct Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
The waterfall approach, lean, and Six Sigma are the valid answer for business analysis approaches.
Answer: A is incorrect. Deming's Quality Circle describes the quality management approach of plan, do, check, and act. This isn't a business analysis approach.

QUESTION 4
You are the business analyst for your organization and working with the stakeholders to prioritize the
requirements. The stakeholders are concerned about the financial impact of the requirements should some of
them fail during the implementation. You would like to rank the risk tolerance of the stakeholders based on
their comments about the solution and the requirements. The following are the three categories of risk
tolerance associated with the stakeholders except for which one?

A. Neutrality
B. Mitigation
C. Risk-seeking
D. Risk-aversion

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Mitigation is a risk response that seeks to lower the risk's probability and/or impact. It is not one of the three categories of risk tolerance.

QUESTION 5
Tracy is a business analyst for her organization and she's gathered and identified the needed requirements for
the solution scope. What must Tracy do before she can begin managing the requirements? Choose the best answer.

A. Tracy must decompose the requirements in WBS.
B. Tracy must create cost-benefits analysis of each requirement to manage the benefits first.
C. Tracy must identify roles, responsibilities, and owners of the requirements to fully manage the requirements.
D. Tracy must communicate the requirements to the stakeholders for their consent and approval.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Requirements must be communicated before they are managed. Tracy must communicate the requirements to
the stakeholders for their consent and approval before managing the requirements.
Answer: A is incorrect. Before Tracy decomposes the requirements, she should have the approval of the stakeholders.
Answer: B is incorrect. To begin managing the requirements, Tracy needs the approval and consent of the stakeholders.
Answer: C is incorrect. This isn't a valid statement, as the best thing to do is to gain the approval of the stakeholders first.
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CIS-RC Certified Implementation Specialist - Risk and Compliance Exam

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance certified.

Exam Purpose
The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of ServiceNow Risk, Policy and Compliance, and Audit Management applications.

Exam Audience
The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Risk and Compliance
Implementer.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• GRC Fundamentals
• Audit Management Implementation
• Risk and Compliance Implementation -
*Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a voucher code to register for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam.

Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals (ILT)
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals (eLearning)
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation (ILT)
• CIS-Risk and Compliance Exam Prep

Performance Analytics Essentials
• Service Portal Fundamentals

Additional Recommended Experience
• Six (6) months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least two ServiceNow deployment projects
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.

Implementation Planning
• Use Cases
• Implementation Team
• Implementation Checklist
• Personas, Groups, and Roles

5% 3 Entity Scoping • Entity Scoping Overview • Entity Type Approach • Entity Class Approach • GRC Entities Architecture 25%

Policy and Compliance Implementation Approach
• Policy and Compliance Record Lifecycles
• Policy and Compliance Architecture
• Policy Management Lifecycle

25% 5 Risk Implementation Approach • Risk Record Lifecycle • Risk Architecture • Risk Scoring • Risk Management Lifecycle 25%

6 Extended Capabilities
• Content Packs
• Integrations
• Performance Analytics
• Other Platform Capabilities
5% 7 Audit Management Implementation 5%
Total 100%

Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the Risk and Compliance Implementation training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the prerequisite training path is nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.

The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.

Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam. This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own system provided that certain requirements are met.

NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.

Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately (45) questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.

Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response most accurately answers the question.

Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.

Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.

Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again up to three more times for a cost of $150.

Sample Item #1:
Which of the following are scoped applications in GRC? (Select all that apply)

A. GRC Profiles
B. Risk
C. Compliance and Audit Management
D. Global

Answer: A & B

Sample Item #2:
Who should be on the core implementation team for a GRC implementation? (Select all that apply)

A. Platform experts
B. Internal audit
C. External audit
D. Risk Assessor

Answer: A & B

Sample Item #3:
The Entity Filter record requires which mandatory field to be completed?

A. Filter date
B. Filter name
C. Conditions
D. Table

Answer: D

Sample Item #4:
Which of the following are tables in the Policy and Compliance scope? (Select all that apply)

A. Issue
B. Control
C. Risk
D. Citation

Answer: B & D

Sample Item #5:
Which of the following are tables in the Risk scope? (Select all that apply)

A. Issue
B. Risk Framework
C. Risk Statement
D. Citation

Answer: B & C

Sample Item #6:
Which plugin is required for continuous monitoring? (Select all that apply)

A. Configuration Compliance
B. Vulnerability Response
C. UCF Integration
D. Performance Analytics GRC

Answer: A & B

Sample Item #7:
Which roles are installed with Audit Management? (Select all that apply)

A. Audit Admin
B. GRC User
C. GRC Reviewer
D. External Auditor

Answer: A & D
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1z0-996 Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials Exam

Exam Title: Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-996
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 70
Passing Score: 68%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C

Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2019 Certified Implementation Specialist
Exam Preparation
Recommended Training
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Review Exam Topics
Customer Information

Maintain and Manage Customer Information

Billing
Maintain Bill Segments
Complete Bills

Payments
Manage Payments
Manage Overpayment and Payment Distribution

Monitor Overdue Debt
Configure and Manage Credit & Collections and Overdue Processes
Manage Payment Arrangements and Pay Plans

Service Points & Install Events
Explain the concept of an install event and the relationship between devices and service points

VEE
Explain the difference between critical validations and validation rules, including when critical validations are executed and when validation rules are executed.
Explain the VEE process, including the data prepration steps that are executed immediately prior to entering VEE processing,w hat data is prassed into the VEE engine and what happens during VEE execution for a given IMD
Configure new VEE groups that contain base packate VEE rules and apply a VEE group to a device or device type
Configure eligibility criteria and criteria field value retrieval algorithms to determine if a rule should be applied.
Expalin the categories of IMD exceptions (generated by VEE rules)

Usage
Explain the usage calculation process
Explain the relationships between usage transactions and usage subscriptions
Use the Get Scalar Details usage rule to retrieve scalar measurements for scalar internal measuring components

Operational Device Management
Explain the role of assets and components
Explain the specifications and their relationship to assets

Financial Transactions
Manage Financial Transactions

Rates
Manage and Apply Rates
Apply Proration
Apply Bill Factors

Adjustments
Configure and Manage Adjustments

Devices & Measuring Components
Explain the concept of a measuring component and the strcutures that represent them
Explain the relationship between devices and measureing components
Explain the different types of measuring components
Configure a device type
Configure a new measuring component type
Configure a new device config type and associate a measuring component to a device

Measurements
Explain the differences between initial measurements, final measurements, and usage
Explain the high level process of loading measurements through to calculating usage
Explain the derived values and how they are associated with the final measurements
Configure a new derive value algorithm
Explain three types of IMDs and the differences between them
Explain the IMD exception statuses and the Automatic Retry functionality

Usage Subscriptions
Explain the concept of usage subscriptions
Explain the possible relationships between measuring components, service points and usage subscriptions
Design and set up the admin data required to effectively configure a usage subscription

Fieldwork and Service Order Management
Explain the concept of a Service Order ("Orchrestrator") Activity
Explain the concept of Service Order Children Activities

QUESTION 1
Critical validation rules verify the integrity of the initial measurement data (IMD). If an implementation needs to add new critical validations, where would you configure them?

A. as new lifecycle algorithms on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
B. in the pre-processing algorithm of the IMD Seeder BO (Dl-IMDSeeder)
C. as options on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
D. in the schema of the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)
E. in the validation algorithm on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true about usage subscriptions? (Choose three.)

A. A usage subscription can have either parent or child service points.
B. A usage subscription can be configured to include only a portion of a service point usage.
C. A usage subscription can have many service points.
D. Usage subscriptions are always related to an account.
E. A usage subscription can have only one service point.

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
On which three entities can proration be disabled? (Choose three.)

A. Calculation Rule Business Object
B. Bill Factor
C. Calculation Rule
D. Rate Version Calculation Group
E. Rate Schedule

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
The base package usage transaction business object is represented by D2-UsageTransaction. The usage
calculation engine or process drives the specifics of the usage to be calculated on this business object.
Based on this, which three configuration areas will have an impact on the usage calculation process? (Choose three.)

A. VEE rule
B. TOU map
C. Usage Rule
D. Factor Override

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Which describes derived values and their relationship with Final Measurements?

A. Final Measurements can have multiple derived values, which represent other values for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
B. Derived values can have multiple Final Measurements, which represent other values for the same Initial Measurement Date/Time.
C. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents an alternative for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.
D. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents the Initial Measurement for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

Correct Answer: D


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300-735 SAUTO Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions (SAUTO)

This exam tests your knowledge of implementing security automated solutions, including:
Programming concepts
RESTful APIs
Data models
Protocols
Firewalls
Web
DNS
Cloud and email security
ISE

Exam Description
The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist - Security Automation and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts, RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git (add, clone, push, commit, diff, branching, and merging conflict)
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes, conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible and Puppet for automating security platforms

2.1 Describe the event streaming capabilities of Firepower Management Center eStreamer API
2.2 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
2.2.a Firepower (Firepower Management Center and Firepower Device Management)
2.2.b ISE
2.2.c pxGRID
2.2.d Stealthwatch Enterprise
2.3 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies using Firepower Management Center API
2.4 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies using Firepower Threat Defense API (also known as Firepower Device Manager API)
2.5 Construct a Python script for pxGrid to retrieve information such as endpoint device type, network policy and security telemetry
2.6 Construct API requests using Stealthwatch API
2.6.a perform configuration modifications
2.6.b generate rich reports

3.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
3.1.a Umbrella Investigate APIs
3.1.b AMP for endpoints APIs
3.1.c ThreatGRID API
3.2 Construct an Umbrella Investigate API request
3.3 Construct AMP for endpoints API requests for event, computer, and policies
3.4 Construct ThreatGRID APIs request for search, sample feeds, IoC feeds, and threat disposition

4.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
4.1.a Umbrella reporting and enforcement APIs
4.1.b Stealthwatch cloud APIs
4.1.c Cisco Security Management Appliance APIs

4.2 Construct Stealthwatch cloud API request for reporting
4.3 Construct an Umbrella Reporting and Enforcement API request
4.4 Construct a report using Cisco Security Management Appliance API request (email and web)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is typically used to manage a Cisco router in-band? (Select the best answer.)

A. a VTY port
B. a serial port
C. a console port
D. an auxiliary port

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following enables the validation of both user and device credentials in a single EAP transaction? (Select the best answer.)

A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-FAST with EAP chaining
D. EAP-MD5

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following features protects the control plane by classifying traffic into three separate control plane subinterfaces? (Select the best answer.)

A. CoPP
B. CPPr
C. RBAC
D. uRPF

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an outputspreading technique that spammers use to manipulate reputation scores and defeat filters? (Select the best answer.)

A. phishing
B. snowshoe spam
C. waterfalling
D. listwashing

Correct Answer: B
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ITIL-4-FOUNDATION ITIL 4 Foundation Exam

Course Description
The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the most widely accepted approach to IT service management in the world. ITIL is a best practice framework that has been drawn from both the public and private sectors internationally. It describes how IT resources should be organized to deliver business value, documenting the processes, functions and roles of IT Service Management (ITSM). The focus of a business should move from simply managing the company’s IT to making IT truly productive by helping the business achieve its strategic goals. ITIL certification helps organizations fulfill this goal by providing guidelines for establishing governance standards and enhancing the alignment between business and its IT processes.

Audience: ITIL certification is most suited for IT Managers, System Analysts, Quality Analysts, System Administrators, Operations Managers, and Database Administrators.

Course Objectives
Understand and implement IT Service Management best practices, key concepts, principles, and process models required for clearing the ITIL Foundation certification exam
Gain understanding of scope, purpose, and objective of, service strategy, service transition, service design, service operations, and Continual Service Improvement
Apply ITIL concepts, tools and techniques to improve effectiveness and efficiency of business for optimizing customer experience
Learn to automate standard tasks and apply lean principles to enhance efficiency of IT Service Management processes in this ITIL 2011 foundation training
Centralize processes and teams and save costs using well defined fit-for-use and fit-for purpose processes
ITIL Foundation course provides participants a complete structure with a set of procedures to help them take a proactive approach in improving business performance with the help of IT.

ITIL Foundation Definition:
ITIL Foundation is a certification based on ITIL practices for IT Service Management. The Foundation certification aims to give professionals an understanding of the guidelines and framework.

Context: Overview
ITIL Foundation is designed to give professionals a basic understanding of the ITIL framework. It focuses on awareness and comprehension rather than being able to apply ITIL principles. The basics of IT Service Management as a practice are covered as is the ITIL lifecycle.

Topics
Some of the topics covered in ITIL Foundation include:
IT Service Management as a practice
ITIL Service Cycle
Technology and architecture
Competence and training
The certification also covers processes, models, functions, and roles. The learning objectives focus on knowing and understanding key terms and definitions.
To become certified for ITIL Foundation, a professional needs to sit the ITIL Foundation exam which consists of 40 multiple choice questions. A certificate is awarded when the professional correctly answers 65% of the questions. The exam can be done as a conclusion to classroom training or it can be prepared for through self-study.

Related Certifications:
There are many ways to further extend your contextual knowledge of IT Service Management to broaden your understanding. One of these ways is to build on your ITIL knowledge with a VeriSM™ certification. The VeriSM™ Plus module offers professionals knowledge of new and emerging technologies. This certification ensures that professionals have a grasp of the progessive practices and innovative technologies that are now emerging rapidly as a consequence of digital transformation.

QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving services?

A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?

A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a standard change?

A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?

A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and implementation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication of service requests and incidents?

A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management

Correct Answer: B

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MB-901 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Exam

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to understand Microsoft Dynamics 365; artificial intelligence (AI); mixed reality (MR); the Power Platform; cloud concepts; cloud security; role-based security in Dynamics 365; Common Data Service; data management framework; Dynamics 365 reporting; Dynamics 365 integrations; and cloud deployment.

This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.

Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Audience Profile
This exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.
Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%)
Describe integration capabilities
• integration across Dynamics 365 apps
• integration across Microsoft products
• integration with third-party apps
• custom integrations in Dynamics 365

Describe Dynamics 365 cloud security
• encryption
• authentication
• data ownership
• data center access
• SSO
• Data loss protection (DLP)
• industry standard certifications (GDPR, etc)

Understand the benefits of role based security
• app role-based security
• leveraging security roles
• streamlined user experience
• out-of-the-box security roles

Identify the business value of the Microsoft cloud
• Azure features used by Dynamics 365
• PaaS
• Life Cycle Services (LCS)

Understand the use of Power Platform in Dynamics 365
• Power Apps
• Power BI
• Power Automate
• AI Builder
• Common Data Service

Understand the benefits of the Common Data Service
• analytics
• extensibility
• interoperability
• consistency

Identify Dynamics 365 reporting capabilities
• built in reporting
• role-based reporting
• extensible reporting

Understand AI and Mixed Reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%)
Leverage AI for data insights
• fraud protection
• virtual agents
• sales insights
• customer insights
• relationship insights
• customer service insights

Leverage mixed reality
• remote assist
• guides
• layouts

Understand model-driven apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales
• dynamics 365 sales automation
• pipeline management
• contact management
• customer requests and follow up
• LinkedIn Sales Navigator

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Marketing
• lead generation and qualifications
• customer journey
• surveys
• landing pages
• segmentation
• event management
• dynamics 365 for marketing

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Field Service
• Resource Scheduling Optimization (RSO)
• Connected Field Service
• service resource scheduling
• proactive customer service
• Field Service Mobile

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Service
• account management
• omni channel service
• case life cycle
• knowledge articles

Understand Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance
• General Ledger
• Accounts Payable
• Accounts Receivable
• project accounting
• budgeting
• global attributes
• end to end business processes
• real time cash flow visibility
• enterprise asset management

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Human Resources
• employee self-service
• personnel management
• benefits management
• employee development

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Business Central
• finance
• supply chain
• project management
• sales and service
• budgeting
• when to use Business Central vs other Dynamics 365 products

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management
• project accounting
• modernize operations
• procurement and sourcing
• manufacturing
• warehouse management
• master planning
• product information

Understand the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Commerce
• retail capability
• Channel Management
• Point of Sale (POS)
• mobile commerce

QUESTION 1
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the cloud.
You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?

A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts

Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 3
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows
sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile
devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A
 

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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Exam

ISACA’s Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) certification indicates expertise in identifying and managing enterprise IT risk and implementing and maintaining information systems controls. Gain instant recognition and credibility with CRISC and boost your career!

THE CRISC DIFFERENCE
Whether you are seeking a new career opportunity or striving to grow within your current organization, a CRISC certification proves your expertise in these work-related domains

PREPARE FOR THE EXAM
Set yourself up to succeed on exam day. Whether you prefer to prep on your own time or want the additional guidance and interaction that comes with live instruction, we have the right CRISC test prep solutions for you.

Course Description
The CRISC Online Review Course is an online preparation course that prepares learners to pass the CRISC certification exam using proven instructional design techniques and interactive activities.The course covers all four of the CRISC domains, and each section corresponds directly to the CRISC job practice.

The course incorporates video, interactive eLearning modules, downloadable, interactive workbooks, downloadable job aids, case study activities, and pre-and post-course assessments. Learners will be able to navigate the course at their own pace, following a recommended structure, or target preferred job practice areas. Learners may also start and stop the course based on their study schedule, picking up exactly where they left off the next time they access the course.

Learning Objectives:

At the completion of this course you will be able to:
Identify the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives and alignment with the Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) strategy.
Analyze and evaluate IT risk to determine the likelihood and impact on business objectives to enable risk-based decision making.
Determine risk response options and evaluate their efficiency and effectiveness to manage risk in alignment with business objectives.
Continuously monitor and report on IT risk and controls to relevant stakeholders to ensure the continued efficiency and effectiveness of the IT risk management strategy and its alignment with business objectives.

Included Materials:
Video
Interactive Content
Downloadable workbooks and job aids
Case study activities
Practice exam

Ideal For:
Professionals preparing to become CRISC certified
Risk practitioners
Students or recent graduates

Cancellation/Refund Policy
All purchases of online learning courses are final. Access to the online learning courses and materials is immediate upon purchasing; therefore no refunds or exchanges will be provided. Prices subject to change without notice.

Enterprise Training
Online review courses are also available for purchase through our enterprise sales team for larger organizations. Visit the Enterprise Training page and reach out to an associate for more information.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that KRIs continue to effectively
capture these changes.
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external environments are constantly
changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they can capture the changes in
threat and vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI reporting, but is not the
reason for maintenance of KRIs.
B: While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect to their sensitivity, the most
important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to effectively capture the changes in
threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that because of change of threat and
vulnerability overtime.
C: Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for KRI maintenance.

QUESTION 2
You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation process. The
project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few administrative closure
activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have wrecked the project but you and your
project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the project costs or project
completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have identified during the project's
monitoring and controlling process?

A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization's lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project's risk register already.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the organization's lessons learned
database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if relevant.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk response plan during the project and
they'll be entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
B: The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after completing the project, they should be
entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
D: If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project's risk register then it may not be
shared with project managers working on some other project.

QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save
$100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?

A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an opportunity, and the appropriate
strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks
or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the
organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for
positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion
is an example of exploit response.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk events, and not in positive risk
events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save $100,000, hence it is a positive risk
event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.
B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs. But as
this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.

QUESTION 4
You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months and will cost
$750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and stakeholders to identify risks
within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why you have scheduled so
many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just initially during the project planning.
What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?

A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during project execution.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Risk identification is an iterative process because new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Stakeholders are encouraged to participate in the risk identification process, but this is not the best choice.
B: Risk identification focuses on discovering new risk events, not the events which did not happen.
D: The primary reason for iterations of risk identification is to identify new risk events.

QUESTION 5
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a rating for
occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?

A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
Identify potential failure effects
Identify potential causes
Establish links between each identified potential cause
Identify potential failure modes
Assess severity, occurrence and detection
Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to score these assessments.
Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by occurrence and detection.
RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection
Hence,
RPN = 4 * 5 * 6
= 120
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence, and detection.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs are highly relevant and possess
a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. KRIs help in avoiding excessively large number of
risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have.
As KRIs are the indicators of risk, hence its most important function is to effectively give an early warning
signal that a high risk is emerging to enable management to take proactive action before the risk actually
becomes a loss.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is one of the important functions of KRIs which can help management to improve but is not as
important as giving early warning.
C: KRIs provide an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance through metric setting, but this is
not as important as giving early warning.
D: This is not as important as giving early warning.
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MS-600 Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core Services (beta)

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Developers who design, build, test, and maintain applications and solutions that are optimized for the productivity and collaboration needs of organizations using the Microsoft 365 platform.

Candidates for this exam are proficient in Microsoft identity and Microsoft Graph. They have general knowledge on UI elements (including Adaptive Cards and UI Fabric), integration points (including Microsoft Teams, Office Add-ins, SharePoint Framework, Actionable Messages), and determining workload platform targets.

Candidates should have experience developing solutions on Microsoft Teams, Office Add-ins, or SharePoint Framework through all phases of software development. They should have a basic understanding of REST APIs, JSON, OAuth2, OData, OpenID Connect, Microsoft identities (including Azure AD and Microsoft accounts), Azure AD B2C, and permission/consent concepts.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Developer Associate

Related exams: none

Important: See details

Exam MS-600: Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core Services (beta)

Languages: English

Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: implement Microsoft identity; build apps with Microsoft Graph; extend and customize SharePoint; extend Teams; and extend Office.

Skills measured
Implement Microsoft Identity (20-25%)
Build Apps with Microsoft Graph (20-25%)
Extend and Customize SharePoint (20-25%)
Extend Teams (15-20%)
Extend Office (15-20%)

Implement Microsoft Identity (20-25%)

Register an Application
• determine the supported account type
• select authentication and client credentials for app type and authentication flow
• define app roles

Implement Authentication
• configure Microsoft Authentication Library (MSAL JS) for endpoint and token cache
• plan and configure scopes for dynamic or static permission
• use the MSAL JS login method

Configure Permissions to Consume an API
• configure Delegated permissions for the app
• configure Application permissions for the app
• identify admin consent requirements

Implement Authorization to Consume an API
• configure incremental consent scopes
• call MSAL JS using AquireTokenSilent/AquireToken pattern

Implement Authorization in an API
• validate Access Token
• configure effective permissions for delegated scopes
• implement app permissions using roles
• use a delegated access token to call a Microsoft API

Create a Service to Access Microsoft Graph • configure client credentials using a certificate • configure Application permissions for the app • acquire an access token for Microsoft Graph using an application permission and client credential certificate
• acquire an access token using the client secret Build Apps with Microsoft Graph (20-25%)

Optimize Data Usage with query parameters
• use $filter query parameter
• use $select query parameter
• order results using $orderby query parameter
• set page size of results using $skip and $top query parameters
• expand and retrieve resources using $expand query parameter
• retrieve the total count of matching resources using $count query parameter
• search for resources using $search query parameter
• determine the appropriate Microsoft Graph SDK to leverage

Optimize network traffic
• monitor for changes using change notifications
• combine multiple requests using $batch
• get changes using a delta query
• implement error 429 handler

Access User data from Microsoft Graph
• get the signed in users profile
• get a list of users in the organization
• get the users profile photo
• get the user object based on the users unique identifier
• get the users manager profile

Access Files with Microsoft Graph
• get the list of files in the signed in users OneDrive
• download a file from the signed in users OneDrive using file unique id
• download a file from a SharePoint Site using the relative path to the file
• get the list of files trending around the signed in user
• upload a large file to OneDrive
• get a user object from an owner list in a group and retrieve that user’s files

Manage a group lifecycle on Microsoft Graph • get the information on a group by id • get the list of members in a Group
• get the list of owners of a Group • get the list of Groups where the signed in user is a member
• get the list of Groups where the signed in user is an owner
• provision a Group • provision a Team with a Group
• delete a group Extend and Customize SharePoint

Understand the components of a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part (20-25%)
• identify the appropriate tool to create an SPFx Web Part project
• understand properties of client-side web parts
• understand Office UI Fabric in client-side web parts
• understand when to use an app page
• differentiate between app page and web part
• understand rendering framework options

Understand SPFx extensions
• identify the appropriate tool to create an SPFx Extension project
• understand page placeholders from Application Customizer
• understand the ListView Command Set extension
• understand the Field Customizer extension

Understand the process to package and deploy an SPFx solution
• understand the options for preparing a package for deployment
• understand the options for packaging a solution
• understand the requirements of tenant-scoped solution deployment
• understand the requirements of domain isolated web parts
• understand the options to deploy a solution

Understand the consumption of Microsoft Graph
• understand the purpose of the MSGraphClient object
• understand the methods for granting permissions to Microsoft Graph

Understand the consumption of third party APIs secured with Azure AD from within SPFx
• understand the purpose of the AadHttpClient object
• understand the methods for granting permissions to consume a third party API

Understand Web Parts as Teams Tabs
• understand the considerations for creating a SPFx Web Part to be a Teams Tab
• understand the options for deploying a SPFx Web Part as a Teams Tab

Understand branding and theming in SharePoint
• understand the options for SharePoint site theming
• understand the options for site designs and site scripts Extend Teams

Understand the components of a Teams app (15-20%)
• understand the purpose of a Teams app manifest
• understand App Studio functionality and features
• identify the components of an app package for Microsoft Teams
• understand the options for distributing a Teams app
• understand the benefits of using deep links
• understand task modules

Understand webhooks in Microsoft Teams
• understand when to use webhooks
• understand the limitations of webhooks
• understand the differences between incoming and outgoing webhooks

Understand tabs in Microsoft Teams
• understand when to use tabs
• understand the capabilities of personal tabs
• understand the capabilities of channel tabs
• understand the requirements for tabs for mobile clients

Understand messaging extensions
• understand when to use messaging extensions
• understand where messaging extensions can be invoked from
• understand search based messaging extensions
• choose the appropriate message extension command type based on requirements
• understand action-based messaging extensions with adaptive cards
• understand action-based messaging extensions with parameters

Understand conversational bots
• understand when to use conversational bots
• understand the scoping options for bots
• understand when to use a task module from a bot

Extend Office (15-20%)

Understand fundamental components and types of Office Add-ins
• understand task pane and Content Office Add-ins
• understand dialogs
• understand custom functions
• understand Add-in commands
• understand the purpose of Office Add-ins manifest

Understand Office JS APIs
• understand the Office Add-in programming model
• understand Office Add-in developer tools
• understand the capabilities of the Excel Javascript API
• understand the capabilities of the Outlook JavaScript API
• understand the capabilities of the Word JavaScript API
• understand the capabilities of the PowerPoint JavaScript API
• understand the capabilities of custom functions

Understand customization of Add-ins
• understand the options of persisting state and settings
• understand Office UI Fabric in Office Add-ins
• understand when to use Microsoft Graph in Office Add-ins
• understand authorization when using Microsoft Graph in Office Add-ins

Understand testing, debugging, and deployment options
• select deployment options based on requirements
• understand testing and debugging concepts for Office Add-ins

Understand actionable messages
• understand the features of actionable messages with an adaptive card
• understand the scenarios for refreshing an actionable message
QUESTION 1
You need to configure the initial login request in the access token JavaScript script.
Which code segment should you insert at line 01?

A. const scopes = ['https://graph.microsoft.com/.default'];
B. const accessTokenRequest = {
};

C. const scopes = ['https://graph.microsoft.com/Files.Read.All',
'https://graph.microsoft.com/Mail.Send.All'];

D. const accessTokenRequest = {
scopes: ['https://graph.microsoft.com/Files.ReadWrite',
'https://graph.microsoft.com/Mail.Send']
};

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Scenario: ADatum identifies the following technical requirements for the planned E-invoicing capabilities:
Ensure that all operations performed by E-invoicing against Office 365 are initiated by a user. Require that
the user authorize E-invoicing to access the Office 365 data the first time the application attempts to access
Office 365 data on the user’s behalf.

---

QUESTION 2
You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform. The solution must ensure that the app can perform operations on behalf of the user.
Which type of authorization flow should you use?

A. authorization code
B. refresh token
C. resource owner password
D. device code

Correct Answer: A

---

QUESTION 3
You are building a server-based web app that will use OAuth2 and will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform.
Which two values does the app require to obtain tokens from the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
authorization endpoint? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. the tenant ID
B. the context token
C. the application ID
D. the application secret
E. the authorization code

Correct Answer: C,E

---

QUESTION 4
You develop a web API named WebApi1.
When validating a token received from a client application, WebApi1 receives a MsalUiRequiredException exception from Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to formulate the response that WebApi1 will return to the client application.
Which HTTP response should you send?

A. HTTP 307 Temporary Redirect
B. HTTP 400 Bad Request
C. HTTP 403 Forbidden
D. HTTP 412 Precondition Failed

Correct Answer: D



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JN0-681 Data Center, Professional (JNCIP-DC) Exam

A great way to start the Juniper Networks Certified Professional Data Center (JNCIP-DC) preparation is to begin by properly appreciating the role that syllabus and study guide play in the Juniper JN0-681 certification exam. This study guide is an instrument to get you on the same page with Juniper and understand the nature of the Juniper JNCIP Data Center exam.

Our team of experts has composed this Juniper JN0-681 exam preparation guide to provide the overview about Juniper Data Center Professional exam, study material, sample questions, practice exam and ways to interpret the exam objectives to help you assess your readiness for the Juniper JNCIP-DC exam by identifying prerequisite areas of knowledge. We recommend you to refer the simulation questions and practice test listed in this guide to determine what type of questions will be asked and the level of difficulty that could be tested in the Juniper JNCIP Data Center certification exam.

Juniper JN0-681 Exam Overview:
Exam Number JN0-681 JNCIP-DC
Exam Price $400 USD
Duration 120 minutes
Number of Questions 65
Passing Score Variable (60-70% Approx.)
Recommended Training Advanced Data Center Switching (ADCX)
Exam Registration PEARSON VUE
Sample Questions Juniper JN0-681 Sample Questions
Practice Exam Juniper Networks Certified Professional Data Center Practice Test

Section Objectives
Data Center Deployment or Management

Describe Zero Touch Provisioning concepts
- DHCP
- Monitoring
- Analytics

Describe management or high availability concepts
- Requirements
- Monitoring
- Order of operations

Multichassis LAG

Describe MC-LAG concepts
- Positioning scenarios
- ICCP

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting MC-LAG

Layer 2 Fabric

Describe Layer 2 Fabric concepts
- Physical layout
- VCF
- Virtual Chassis

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting Layer 2 Fabric technologies

Layer 3 Fabric

Describe IP Fabric concepts
- 3-stage Clos architecture
- IP Fabric routing
- IP Fabric scaling
- IP Fabric best practices

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting IP Fabrics

VXLAN

Describe VXLAN concepts
- L2VPN control planes
- Multicast control plane
- Data plane

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting VXLAN
EVPN VXLAN Signaling

Describe EVPN concepts
- Route types
- EVPN multicast
- MP-BGP
- MAC Learning

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting EVPNs
Data Center Interconnect

Describe DCI concepts
- Interconnect network types
- Intraconnect networks
- Layer 2 and 3 stretch
- Stitching
- EVPN-signaled VXLAN for DCI

Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting DCI

Data Center Architecture and Security

Describe single tenant and multi-tenant architectures
- Traffic isolation
- VRFs

Describe data center security concepts

Juniper JNCIP-DC Exam Description:
Designed for experienced data center networking professionals with advanced knowledge of the Juniper Networks Junos software and data center devices, this written exam verifies the candidate’s understanding of data center technologies, related platform configuration, and troubleshooting skills.

---

QUESTION 1
You are designing a network for a small data center.
In this scenario, which underlay protocol allows for the simplest implementation?

A. OSPF
B. IBGP
C. EBGP
D. MPLS

Correct Answer: C

---

QUESTION 2
You are asked to manage the oversubscription ratio of your spine and leaf IP fabric. You determine that you
are at a 3:1 ratio of downstream to upstream traffic and must achieve a 1:1 ratio.
In this scenario, which two actions would you take to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry traffic.
B. Reduce the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry traffic.
C. Increase the number of spine nodes in your design.
D. Reduce the number of leaf nodes in your design.

Correct Answer: B,C

---

QUESTION 3
You are designing a Layer 3 fabric underlay using EBGP. You will implement an EVPN-signaled VXLAN overlay on the Layer 3 fabric.
In this scenario, what must you do in the underlay to ensure that the VXLAN overlay will be able to function properly?

A. The underlay should advertise the host-connected interfaces on all leaf devices.
B. Each device in the underlay should advertise its loopback address.
C. The underlay should be configured with a separate VRF for each potential tenant.
D. The underlay should support the PIM protocol.

Correct Answer: B

---

QUESTION 4
You are configuring VXLAN, and you must ensure that all switches for the multicast groups advertise their existence and learn about other VTEPs.
In this scenario, which protocol will accomplish this task?

A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. EVPN
D. PIM

Correct Answer: C


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