Microsoft's secret weapon against Google Maps -- open source

One of the many areas where Google is far ahead of Microsoft is mapping, with Google Maps by far the dominant map service on the Internet. Microsoft is employing an under-the-radar approach to fighting back, lending big support and big dollars to the open source map project OpenStreetMap. It looks as if the tactic is starting to pay off.

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OpenStreetMap is run much like Wikipedia, in which volunteers provide mapping information to build a free, open mapping service. People, sites, and companies can then use that mapping information. The services is overseen by the non-profit OpenStreetMap Foundation. The foundation says that a half a million volunteers have already provided data to OpenStreetMap.

The New York Times reported recently that a variety of companies have started to defect from using Google Maps because of the high fees charged for the service, and instead have turned to getting mapping data for free from OpenStreetMap. The mobile social media service FourSquare has jumped ship, and for iPhoto, the iOS photo management app, Apple has switched from Google to OpenStreetMap.

Behind the scenes, spurring all this on, is Microsoft. Microsoft hired OpenStreetMap founder Steve Coast to work for Bing as Principal Architect for Bing Mobile. Coast works on both Bing and OpenStreetMap. In a blog post announcing Coast's hiring back in November 2010, Microsoft said Coast will "develop better mapping experiences for our customers and partners, and lead efforts to engage with OpenStreetMap and other open source and open data projects."

The Times reports that Coast is working on developing open-source software that will make it simpler for developers to get data from and use OpenStreetMap. And it also reports that Microsoft has been donating "valuable map data" to OpenStreetMap. Bing also uses OpenStreetMap data for its mapping service.

Any OpenStreetMap success eats into Google's mapping dominance and bottom line. Given the tight connections between OpenStreetMap and Bing, it also helps Microsoft. At the moment, Google Maps remains dominant; the Times says that 71 percent of the nearly 92 million people who viewed a map online in February were using Google Maps.

Still as the defections from FourSquare, Apple, and many smaller companies show, OpenStreetMap is starting to have some effect on Google Maps. Microsoft's embrace of open source mapping seems to be starting to work.

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Tech job seekers less likely to be asked for social-media passwords

Experts say practice is more common in other industries, warn of privacy concerns

There's been a good amount of talk recently about employers asking for the login information of job applicants. So, should those in the tech world expect the question to be asked the next time they're in an interview?

A handful of experts queried by Network World say techies actually have less to worry about compared to workers in more heavily regulated industries. Financial services and public sector government jobs, for example, may have more of an incentive to peer into a candidate's social media life as part of what some call an alarmingly more popular trend.

"The technology industry seems better than average in striking a balance between the personal and professional lives of workers," says Andrea Matwyshyn, associate professor of legal studies and business ethics at the University of Pennsylvania's Wharton School. Technology companies seem more open to supporting individual freedom of speech and expression, she says. There's also, she suspects, a level of comfort technology companies may have toward their employees, encouraging them to be creative, free-thinking individuals. Technology companies are in many cases creating the tools that run these social media sites, she notes.

Nonetheless, there have been increased efforts by employers in some industries to ask for the credentials to social media sites, and employees are finding ways to fight back.

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KINDA CREEPY: Five very cool (but kinda creepy) mobile technologies

SOCIAL MEDIA IN THE ENTERPRISE: 11 Promising Enterprise Social Networks
The issue is not new; in fact there have been public examples of employers asking for login information dating back as much as two years, including in Bozeman, Mont., which has since reversed its position. The Associated Press recently reported several examples of organizations asking for login credentials, mostly in the public law enforcement or financial services industries. With the focus on it, there have been moves to ban such behavior, including an effort in Illinois.

RELATED: Facebook warns employers not to ask job applicants for login credentials

Andrew Walls, a security, risk and privacy researcher at Gartner, calls the efforts to acquire login information of workers "a pretty egregious violation of personal privacy." Increased attention on the issue "throws gasoline on the fire in the call for more regulation" against the practice, he says.

Walls agrees that he doesn't expect such a practice would happen as much in the technology industry though. "In the tech world, if you're trying to hire someone, you probably already know a lot about the perspective employee based on public information," he says. "If anyone would know how to find it, it would be tech companies."

Using public information about potential employees is not new, and it's becoming easier for employers to get that information. There are various products on the market, including one from Kenexa named Social Source, that scan the Internet, including social media sites, to collect information about individuals. For example, an employer can create a form and the system will automatically populate certain query fields using social media profiles. For example, the software can scan the Internet and find an applicant's LinkedIn profile to pull out resume information, such as prior work experience.

Also, more employers are following perspective employees or existing workers by asking "friend" members of their company on Facebook, for example, with unrestricted rights to track the person, Matwyshyn says.

Seeking login credentials, though, is a different story, and one that some employers are averse to, says Dyke Debrie, of Kenexa, which provides software and job search tools for employers. "It kind of opens a whole Pandora's box," he says. Businesses are not allowed to use certain information including age, marital status, religious affiliation or sexual orientation to make employment decisions. Having access to a social media profile could reveal such information and Debrie says the businesses he works with don't even want to have access to the information because it can create questions about how it is used.

But some employers do want to glean into the social media lives of workers. The industries it is most common in, Matwyshyn says, are highly regulated ones, such as financial services, government and public positions or in which security clearances may be needed. Another area she's seen increased traction of social media monitoring is in customer-facing jobs and marketing positions. "From an employer's perspective, if they are putting an individual in a client or public-facing position, they way that candidate represents him or herself online could be an indication of the tone, professionalism and demeanor the individual may bring to the professional setting," she says.

Some companies feel they even have an obligation to monitor the social media habits of employees. If a financial broker has relationships with individuals or companies they are trading or advising clients of investing in, that can create a conflict of interest that the financial services firms may not only want to know about, but may be required to report and keep a record of. In response, Matwyshyn says, some financial services firms simply don't allow employees to engage in social media use.

Users that give up their login and password information, Matwyshyn says, are showing the disregard they have for personal privacy. It also demonstrates, Matwyshyn says, a power imbalance between employers and perspective employees. The more access to information job seekers give to their potential employers, they less control they have in crafting the image they want to portray to employers.

Potential employers are fighting back though and finding loopholes. Matwyshyn says, for example, individuals may create multiple social media identities, or restrict what information is shared publicly on the social media profiles. If they give up their username and password though, that control can be lost. Overall, Matwyshyn says employers using social media to track and potentially vet candidates is a concerning practice.

"In the past in real space, we've been able to carve out different identities for different contexts," she says. "In this online realm, when those different identities are all blended together and employers usurp the access to those identities, it can be an alarming trend for individuals."

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000-026 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
Which information is relevant when creating a customer's current storage environment baseline
documentation as input to a storage solution design?

A. biggest risk factors
B. IBM solution differentiators
C. business benefits provided by the solution
D. IT organizational structure diagram and description

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 2
Why is it important to understand the customers constraints when working on a solution?

A. Constraints validate the solution.
B. Constraints are legally binding obligations.
C. Constraints set the boundaries of the project scope.
D. Constraints determine the actions that the solution implementation team must perform.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 3
What should be in place to meet audit and compliance standards before installing IBM Tivoli
Storage Productivity Center V4.1?

A. a SAN endpoint
B. NetView process monitoring
C. security monitoring and enforcement
D. audit history for change and problem management

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Who should be interviewed when documenting the customers future storage requirements?

A. systems integrator, IBM Tivoli Storage Manageradministrator
B. storage infrastructure administrator, IBM Tivoli Storage Manageradministrator
C. network analyst, IBM Tivoli Storage Manageradministrator, systems integrator
D. network security analyst, systems integrator, IBM Tivoli Storage Manageradministrator

Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
Which information is relevant when creating a customer's current storage environment baseline
documentation as input to a storage solution design?

A. customers key storage hardware
B. customers service level requirements
C. customers data management policies
D. customers current data backup practices

Answer: B

---

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70-595 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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---

QUESTION 1
You are employed as a developer at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com makes use of BizTalk Server 2010 in
their environment.
You have designed a BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution for processing XML messages. You
then configured the solution to makes use of a solitary Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity
and BAM tracking profile to obtain content values from a message.
When a message is received, a portion of the values are bound to a receive port. When a
message is sent, the rest of the values are bound to a send port.
You have been instructed to make sure that a single record that includes all content values is
created for each message.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider making use of the BizTalk Tracking Profile Utility (bttdeploy.exe) to
redeploy the tracking profile used in this solution.
B. You should consider linking a complete value to ActivityID field.
C. You should consider adding a relationship to the BAM tracking profile.
D. You should consider configuring the solution to make use of another Business Activity
Monitoring (BAM) activity.

Answer: C

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
You are employed as a developer at Certkingdom.com. You are currently in the process of designing a
BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration for Certkingdom.com’s environment.
You have already created and saved a policy, named CertkingdomEmployeeBonus, to compute an
employee’s bonus based on year-to-date sales via the Business Rule Composer. You have also
included a Call Rules shape in the new BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration.
When you access the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, you are unable to find CertkingdomEmployeeBonus
in the menu of accessible policies.
It is imperative that CertkingdomEmployeeBonus is made available.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider publish CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the BizTalk Orchestration Designer.
B. You should consider publish CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the Business Rules Composer.
C. You should consider creating and publishing a vocabulary containing a definition that
references the XML schema used to evaluate CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the Business Rules Composer.
D. You should consider creating and publishing a vocabulary containing a definition that
references the XML schema used to evaluate CertkingdomEmployeeBonus from the BizTalk Orchestration Designer.

Answer: B
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa995582(v=BTS.70).aspx

---

QUESTION 3
You are employed as an administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com is a shipping company that uses
radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on
BizTalk Server 2010 to track shipped containers.
Subsequent to defining a custom tag event, named ContainerArrivalEvent, you include the
SqlServerSink component to the RFID process using the RFID manager.
You are required to make sure that only the custom tag event is logged.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should make use of the Inline XSLT script type.
B. You should make use of the fully qualified assembly name for the EventType property.
C. You should make use of the Inline C# script type.
D. You should make use of the Generic EventType property.

Answer: D
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd352454(v=BTS.70).aspx

---

QUESTION 4
You are employed as an administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has a BizTalk Server 2010
environment.
Certkingdom.com has three trading partners to which EDI purchase orders are regularly sent. Certkingdom.com’s
trading partners make use of email, instead of through response messages, to confirm purchase
order acknowledgements. Furthermore, Certkingdom.com’s three trading partners employ identical
versions of the purchase order message. The only difference is that the product types for each
trading partner are defined by custom codes, which are not included in the standard BizTalk
purchase order schemas.
You have been instructed to make sure that a purchase order schema is used for each trading
partner when sending purchase orders. Each purchase order schema should contain the required
custom product type codes for that particular trading partner.
Which two of the following actions should you take? (

A. You should consider defining a local host setting for each of the three trading partners via the
transaction set settings for the party.
B. You should consider defining an envelope for each of the three trading partners via the
transaction set settings for the party.
C. You should consider making use of the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI
messages.
D. You should consider defining a custom namespace for each BizTalk schema.

Answer: B,C
Reference:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff629750(v=BTS.70).aspx

---

QUESTION 5
You work as a BizTalk Server 2010 administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com makes use of a BizTalk
Server 2010 orchestration that calls a Business Rules Engine policy.
You have previously configured the policy to assess test scores for passes or fails. You then
deployed The BizTalk solution, as well as the policy.
When Certkingdom.com decides to increase the value of a passing score, you are instructed to make the
necessary changes to the policy so that the adjusted rule parameter is displayed.
Which of the following actions should you take? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You should create a new version of the policy in the Business Rules Composer
B. You should create a different policy with a new name that includes the changed parameter in
the Business Rules Composer.
C. You should create a new vocabulary in the Business Rules Composer.
D. You should create a new version of the policy in the Business Rules Composer
E. Add the new parameter to this vocabulary
F. You should edit this version to reflect the changed parameter.
G. You should deploy the new version.
H. You should publish the new version.
I. You should publish the vocabulary.
J. You should deploy the new policy.

Answer: C,E,I
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa560288(v=BTS.70).aspx

---

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AMD's new CEO likes basketball and the chip maker's future

Computerworld - WASHINGTON -- Since being hired last August, Rory Read, Advanced Micro Devices CEO, has been reshaping the company.

In November, Read set plans to cut the company's global workforce of 11,100 by 10%. The company would use the savings to fund initiatives in new technologies and emerging markets.

Read is hiring new upper management. Of the semiconductor maker's top eight executives directly under the CEO, Read has hired three to fill technology leadership roles. Two of the new hires have worked at IBM, similar to Read.

Read recently brought 500 of the company's top managers to a forum in Dallas to launch an initiative for changing the corporate culture, which he calls "The AMD Way." A lifelong basketball player, Read played full-court games with about a dozen of his fellow executives at 5 a.m.

The new CEO has also delivered a wake-up call to his chief rival, Intel, by acquiring SeaMicro, which makes highly dense servers designed for large-scale data centers. In January, SeaMicro announced new products based on Intel's chips. One month later, AMD bought SeaMicro for $334 million.

SeaMicro's intellectual property and engineering talent is "nothing but a positive" for AMD, said Nathan Brookwood, principal chip analyst at Insight 64. AMD now has "a nice solution for the ultra-dense server market and Intel doesn't," he said.

Read is bringing a muscular attitude to AMD that may not be so different from what he learned at IBM.

"Step out of the shadows and lead" is the message that Read said he is delivering to AMD employees. "Don't be in a duopoly following some other industry player," he said in an interview.

Late last week, Read was in Washington to meet with government officials, including the federal CIO, to talk about technology, cloud computing and the semiconductor market. Near the end of the workday, he was in a bar that is practically across the street from the White House, explaining his plan for AMD and a little bit about himself.

Read's father was a 38-year employee of IBM, beginning on an assembly line and moving up to the executive ranks. Rory Read, the youngest of four brothers (he also has a younger sister), graduated with a computer science degree from Hartwick College and took a job with IBM, overlapping employment with his father for about five years.

IBM's intramural basketball league "was a big decision point" in his taking the job, Read said.

Read spent 23 years at IBM, moving up management ranks until he left to become president and COO of Lenovo Group, the company that acquired IBM's PC division.

He doesn't imagine his new company in a perpetual second place. Similar to IBM, he wants to focus on execution and innovation.

Read's hiring of technology executives that have IBM experience on their resumes is something Charles King, an analyst at Pund-IT, took note of at AMD's recent analyst meeting.

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IBM "has pursued a level of excellence that unfortunately has been lacking at AMD over the last few years," King said. "If we're talking about thoroughbreds, these executives all have the right bloodlines," he said of Read's management choices.

Recent key hires with IBM experience on their resumes include Lisa Su, senior vice president and general manager for AMD's global business unit, who joined AMD in January. Prior to taking that job, she was a senior vice president and general manager at Freescale Semiconductor. Before Freescale, Su worked for 13 years at IBM.

Another IBM veteran is Mark Papermaster, who joined AMD last October. He also worked at Apple and Cisco.

A third top hire is Rajan Naik as senior vice president and chief strategy officer. Naik spent 11 years at consulting firm McKinsey, and before that as a senior engineer at Intel.

Read sees three big trends driving the market: consumerization, cloud and convergence. The later trend, convergence, is about how data and applications will flow across all devices, which "will break down this idea that there is only a single operating system, or a single solution," he said.

Consumerization will deliver "the next billion or two billion customers coming from emerging markets," Read said. "They're going to buy at entry and mainstream price points, where we play very strong," he said.

Cloud computing is changing both the data center and the client. Users want clients that can work with low bandwidth and still deliver a great experience, Read said. That involves building chips that combine the CPU and GPU technology, or what is called an Accelerated Processing Unit (APU), which includes AMD's Brazos, low-powered chip. AMD has sold about 30 million of those chips.

"It's the most successful platform we've ever had," Read said.

The SeaMicro acquisition gives AMD access to a relatively new approach to server design that uses lower-power chips in a dense design on small motherboards and that's optimized for specific workloads, such as multimedia and search. The company, founded in 2007, received a $9.3 million grant in 2009 from the U.S. Department of Energy to help in its development of low-power systems.

Read believes demand for SeaMicro's technology will grow with the cloud, and its design will be able to support any number of compute core types made by AMD and others, such as ARM. Read is careful to point out that he's not saying ARM will be in the mix.

Less than a decade ago, AMD rocked the server market with its release of the Opteron processor. This was the first 64-bit x86 chip, which had been previously limited to 32-bit processors. It forced Intel to respond with its own 64-bit chip.

But AMD also suffered delays in meeting chip release dates, an issue that Read is particularly interested in correcting.

What AMD customers want, Read said, "is a company that they can trust to deliver on its commitments and execute on those commitments every day, day in and day out."

Read said customers see AMD "as a company that is innovative, creative, that can do the next big thing." At "the same time, they want that company to be there every day, to be able to assist them and create the solutions that help them win."

The SeaMicro acquisition caught a lot of people by surprise, King said, and overall Read "has done very well in the short term."

"Out of the block he has done some pretty interesting and thought-provoking things," King said.

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642-165 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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QUESTION 1
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?

A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route
Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?

A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified
Communications? (Choose two.)

A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified
CM Telephony group?

A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
Which interface is used to configuration debug parameter for log files?

A. Data store control center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. System parameter
D. Control center

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

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Analysts: Microsoft didn't cut Office 365 prices just to be nice

Reasons for the price reduction include competing better against Google and boosting sales among large enterprises, they said

In announcing price reductions for Office 365 this week, Microsoft said its cost of running the cloud suite has fallen and that it wants to "pass on" those savings to customers, but some analysts believe the primary drivers for the move have little to do with goodwill.

Specifically, Microsoft is trying to slow down the momentum of Google Apps in the market, jump-start Office 365 sales among enterprises and reduce potential churn among this first wave of customers, according to the analysts.

TECH ARGUMENT: Microsoft Office 365 vs. Google Apps for Business

Google Apps is gaining more and more acceptance among CIOs of large companies and is finally cracking that market, after being considered for years a cloud email and collaboration suite better suited for small businesses.

This trend represents a risk not only to Office 365, which comes in most editions with cloud-hosted versions of Exchange, SharePoint, Lync and Office, but also to the on-premise deployments of those products.

"The price cuts reflect Microsoft's fear of Google. Google Apps for Business has increasing momentum in the enterprise sector, and Microsoft is doing everything they can to prevent further incursions. In this case, Microsoft is pulling on the pricing lever to combat Google," said Gartner analyst Matthew Cain, via email.

Michael Osterman, president and founder of Osterman Research, sees the price cuts as an attempt by Microsoft to spur sales of Office 365 among enterprise customers, given that most of the suite's sales have come from small companies since its launch about eight months ago.

"A key reason for the price cuts is likely that Microsoft's enterprise adoption numbers are not quite where the company wants them to be," he wrote in a blog post.

How successful the strategy will be isn't clear, because there is "substantial variation" in how demand increases depending on the size of price reductions, according to Osterman.

His firm's research shows, for example, that cloud-based email services that cost US$20 per seat, per month make 16 percent of midsize and large companies "likely or definite adopters." At $15, the number of likely or definite adopters jumps significantly to 27 percent, and at $10, the percentage increases to 49. Dropping the price below $10 per seat, per month increases demand, but more modestly, Osterman said.

"I suspect that Microsoft has done its own research and come to a similar conclusion -- that the just-announced price cuts may be significant enough to create sufficient demand among its potential enterprise customers to meet the company's enterprise adoption targets," Osterman wrote.

Office 365 comes in a variety of editions, all priced differently on a per-user, per-month subscription basis.

Prices for the four plans for midsize businesses and enterprises, called E1, E2, E3 and E4, fell, in that order, from US$10 to $8; from $16 to $14; from $24 to $20; and from $27 to $22.

Office 365 also has a plan for small businesses, called P1, which has a 50-user limit. An email-only option with just Exchange Online, as well as other alternatives, are also available. The P1 plan price remains the same at $6 per user, per month.

By comparison, Google Apps' standard edition, which is limited to 10 users, is free, while its enterprise edition, called Google Apps for Business, costs $50 per user, per year, which amounts to about $4.16 per month, for customers who sign an annual contract. It costs $5 per user, per month if the contract is renewed monthly.

Microsoft also said that plan A2 of the upcoming Office 365 for Education will be free for students, faculty and staff, and that prices for other education plans for staff and faculty have been reduced aggressively.

Here as well Gartner's Cain sees the shadow of Google Apps, which is free for educational institutions.

"Regarding the drop in fees for the education market, Microsoft dropped fees simply because Google does not charge edu customers at all, and consequently Microsoft was increasingly losing share in the crucial edu market. Microsoft's attempts to monetize the edu market were ill-advised from the start, and this was a much-needed correction," Cain said.

The A2 plan includes hosted Exchange, SharePoint, Lync and Office Web Apps. Office 365 for Education will be launched in the summer.

Microsoft's new prices apply only to new customers and to existing customers when their contracts are up for renewal. This means, for example, that a company in the fifth month of a one-year Office 365 deal will pay the old, higher prices for the remaining seven months and renew the contract at the new, lower prices.

Nucleus Research has analyzed return-on-investment (ROI) in some companies that have implemented Office 365 and found that the Microsoft suite has delivered on lowering costs and increasing efficiency, even at the original prices.

"It's not surprising that Microsoft is trying to accelerate adoption of Office 365. The more customers it has on board, the more cost-effective it is for them," said Rebecca Wettemann, a Nucleus Research analyst.

Being able to entice existing customers to stick with Office 365 by lowering prices is important because churn is high in the first six months of a company's deployment of a cloud-hosted suite in general, Wettemann said.

"Churn drops significantly after six months and doesn't start to spike up again until after three years," she said.

"Better for Microsoft to capture those customers at a lower price point than have Google or someone else compete for them. What Microsoft has done with Office 365 is educate the market that unreliable email or expensive support isn't acceptable for email communications, even for small companies," she added.

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ST0-91X Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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---

QUESTION 1
An administrator attempts to use the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface to restore the
server's data. Upon selecting the client name and policy type, the administrator notices that
restore points are unavailable. The backup jobs have been completed successfully. What should
the administrator do first to troubleshoot this issue?

A. verify the tape media is available in the tape library
B. verify the backup image has yet to expire
C. verify the restore policy is enabled
D. verify the date and time are set correctly on the media server

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about duplication in Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)

A. Duplications may be performed without usingNetBackup Vault.
B. In any multiple media server environment, the source and destination media must reside on the
same media server.
C. An entire tape is copied block by block from source to destination.
D. Unexpired images can be duplicated from source to destination.
E. Due to formatting concerns, tape drives used in the duplication must be of the same media
type.

Answer: A,D

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QUESTION 3
An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal
window and needs to configure robots and drives. Which command should be used to complete
the configuration?

A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report?(Select two.)

A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using

Answer: A,D

---

QUESTION 5
Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup
LiveUpdate?

A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA

Answer: C

---

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HP0-238 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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---

QUESTION 1
Using the MSA1000 Software Support CD, which installation options do you have? Select TWO.

A. new firmware
B. Windows drivers
C. MSAFlash utility
D. Secure Path
E. ACU-XE

Answer: B,E

---

QUESTION 2
You have a configuration with 3 virtual disks configured in one array. One virtual disk is RAID 0,
one is RAID 5 and one is ADG. Identify the correct statements if one hard drive has failed and you
remove a wrong (running) drive from this array. Select TWO.

A. RAID 5 has data loss when you remove the wrong drive.
B. RAID 5 has data loss after first drive failure.
C. ADG is still online.
D. RAID 5 is still online.
E. ADG has data loss when you remove the wrong drive.

Answer: A,C

---

QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button.
On an MSA1000 disk, all LEDs are OFF. What are possible causes for the status and which
actions should you take? Select TWO.


A. The array is performing an online expansion. Do not remove this drive without verifying the
configuration.
B. The drive is not configured as part of an array. You can remove the drive.
C. The array is rebuilding. Do not remove this drive without verifying the configuration.
D. The drive is configured as a hot spare. If needed, you can remove the drive.
E. The drive is part of the selection of the array configuration utility. Do not remove this drive
without verifying the configuration.

Answer: B,D

---

QUESTION 4
Which cable can be used to connect an MSA1000 with I/O-module to a 1 Gb SAN switch?

A. LC to SC
B. SFF to SFP
C. SC to SC
D. LC to LC

Answer: A

---

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---

QUESTION 1
What is the best practice of configuring an intercom on a shared line?

A. This feature allows all endpoints to participate in intercom messages.
B. This feature can be used only when the intercomephonedn is configured as a dual line
C. This feature is not supported and should not be used
D. This feature can be supported only in a unidirectional manner.
E. This feature allows one endpoint to contact multiple endpoints simultaneously

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 2
Using the show ccn trigger command provides the following output:cue1000#
show ccn trigger
Name: 6800Type: SIPApplication: voicemailLocale:en_US Idle Timeout: 5000Enabled: yes
Maximum number of sessions: 8Name: 6700Type: SIPApplication: autoattendant Locale:en_US
Idle Timeout: 5000Enabled: yes Maximum number of sessions: 8cue1000#
What two pieces of
information can you derive from this output? (Choose two.)

A. The number of ports available is 16
B. The operator can bereachedat extension6800
C. The voicemail pilot point number is 6800
D. The voicemail application is enabled.
E. The idle timeout is 5 seconds

Answer: C,D

---

QUESTION 3
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibit carefully. What type of calls
can the ephone with extension 2151 make?

Exhibit:


A. No impact on out going calls. However, in coming calls will not be permitted to extension
2151unless cor list is configured on the ephonedn
B. Only US calls
C. All calls
D. Internal and emergency calls only, because of the defaultcor restriction.
E. None

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 4
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibit carefully. A user at Acme
Co. reports that when some one leaves a voicemail message, their MWI does not light up. The
administrator has checked the MWI configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express and found that the MWI On number is 9001 and the MWI Off number is 9000. Using the
trace output from the Cisco Unity Express module, what is the problem?

Exhibit:


A. The MWI On number configuration is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express
B. The CCN subsystem SIP is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express.
C. The MWI Off Number configuration is incorrect in Cisco Unity Express
D. The SIP is misconfigured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
E. The MWI application is not enabled

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 5
You work as an administrator at your company. You study the exhibits carefully. This proposed
configuration is meant to forward calls to extension 9999 when extension 2001is busy. Which
configuration command will most likely to be edited for this to function properly?
Exhibit #1:

Exhibit #2:


A. max registrations
B. id network mask
C. mailbox
D. voiceregisterpool

Answer: D

---

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---

QUESTION 1
Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)

A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits
result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)

A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)

A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge
configuration with single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput
requirement of 40MB/s. Under which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?

A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path

Answer: A

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration
needs to be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?

A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid segmentation.

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

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---

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drop

.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:



Explanation:

---

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QUESTION 2
Which two Tel scripts make up the B-ACD? (Choose two.)

A. Call Queue
B. Auto Attendant
C. Basic Queuing
D. Direct Inward Dial
E. Automated Queuing
F. Automated Call Distributor

Answer: A,B

---

QUESTION 3
The Clinton Howe Weights and Measures Company wants to send CDRs to a syslog server.
Which two options are required? (Choose two.)

A. The CDR collection must be enabled from the CLI.
B. The syslog server IP address must be configured using the logging command.
C. The CDRs must be sent to the syslog server using the gw-accounting syslog command.
D. The logging file must be initialized using the logging buffered command.

Answer: B,C

---

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Where would a Cisco Unity Express Network Module physically reside?


A. PC at headquarters
B. PC at the remote office
C. voice-enabled router at headquarters
D. Cisco Unified CallManager publisher at headquarters
E. Cisco Unified CallManager subscriber at headquarters
F. Cisco Unified CallManager Express router at the remote office

Answer: F

---

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The Hamilton Hair Emporium was having difficulty hearing during conference
calls. This configuration adjustment was made, and now the company is experiencing sound
distortion. What is the cause?


A. The gain functionality applies to outbound audio packets. Distortion is created when an external
participant causes echo.
B. The distortion is unrelated to the gain functionality. Rather, it is a result of the company trying to
maintain too many conference calls at one time.
C. This functionality cannot discriminate between a local VoIP source that requires volume gain
and a CO-powered PSTN source that does not require volume gain.
D. This functionality cannot discriminate between a remote VoIP or Foreign Exchange Office
source that requires volume gain, and a remote VoIP or IP phone that does not require volume
gain.

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 6
The network administrator at Silver Ball GeneralCom has downloaded the cme-gui-xxx.xx.tar file
("xxx.xx" represents the version number of the file) for Cisco Unified CallManager Express. Which
file will be extracted?

A. xml.template
B. normaljjserjs
C. music-on-hold.au
D. ATA03u1uuSCCP04u211A.zip

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 7
Which two of the following must be configured to allow users to blind transfer calls to both internal
and PSTN numbers using H.450.2 supplementary services? (Choose two.)

A. transfer-pattern .T
B. transfer-system full-blind
C. supplemental service h.450.2
D. allow-connections h323 to h323

Answer: A,B

---

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---

QUESTION 1
A site definition has been purchased from another company. It is used to created SharePoint sites.
Now there is a request to modify the home page for the site definition by adding a Web Part.
What actions need to be taken? Select two.

A. Add..
B. Uninstall..
C. Remove…
D. Modify..
E. Install…
F. ..the file CSTemplate.xsd
G. ..the file Onet.xml
H. ..a Feature receiver
I. ..a Feature dependcy
J. ..the file config.web
K. ..the file web.config

Answer: D,G

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
A customized Site Featured need to be made. There is customized site definition.
The Feature of this site definition must be activated for all additional sites which are created using
it.
What actions need to be taken? Select two.

A. Add..
B. Uninstall..
C. Remove…
D. Modify..
E. Install…
F. ..the file CSTemplate.xsd
G. ..the file Onet.xml
H. ..a Feature receiver
I. ..a Feature dependcy
J. ..the file config.web
K. ..the file web.config

Answer: D,G

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
There is third party site definition named CertKingdom.
A file named TemplateCertKingdom.xsd is included in CertKingdom.
TemplateCertKingdom.xsd contains configuration date.
There is a provision handler for CertKingdom.
The information in TemplateCertKingdom.xsd must be read.
The following property should be used.



Answer:

---

QUESTION 4
There is a specialized program to import data into SharePoint sites.
There is a specialized site definition named CertKingdom created by MS Visual Studio 2010.
The specialized program code must be run whenever a new site is created by using CertKingdom.
What should be done to ensure this? Select three.

A. Modify..
B. Add…
C. Delete…
D. ..file..
E. ..class..
F. ..feature..
G. .. CSTemplate.xsd
H. ..SPItemEventReceiver
I. .. Onet.xml
J. .. receiver
K. .. SPChangeFile
L. .. SPWebEventReceiver
M. .. dependcy
N. .. SPWebProvisioningProvider
O. ..config.web
P. .. web.config

Answer: B,E,N

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
There is a specialized Web Part named CertKingdomWebpart.
There must be a test to check if CertKingdomWebpart generates leaks in the RAM.
What should be done to ensure this? Select two.

A. Modify..
B. Add…
C. Run..
D. Delete…
E. .. WinDbg.exe
F. .. CSTemplate.xsd
G. ..SPItemEventReceiver
H. .. Onet.xml
I. .. SPDisposeCheck.exe
J. .. SPChangeFile
K. .. SPWebEventReceiver
L. .. SPMetal.exe
M. .. SPWebProvisioningProvider
N. ..config.web
O. .. web.config

Answer: C,I

Explanation:

---

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CAS-001 - CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) certification designates IT professionals with advanced-level security skills and knowledge.

The CASP certification is an international, vendor-neutral exam that proves competency in enterprise security; risk management; research and analysis; and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines.

The exam covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, design, and engineer secure solutions across complex enterprise environments. It involves applying critical thinking and judgment across a broad spectrum of security disciplines to propose and implement solutions that map to enterprise drivers. For more detailed information, download the exam objectives.

While there is no required prerequisite, the CASP certification is intended to follow CompTIA Security+ or equivalent experience and has a technical, hands-on focus at the enterprise level.

The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification was accredited by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) on Dec. 13, 2011. The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification may be kept current through the CompTIA Continuing Education program.

Test Details
Number of questions 80 (maximum)
Length of Test 150 minutes
Passing Score Pass/Fail only. No scaled score.
Recommended experience 10 years experience in IT administration, including at least 5 years of hands-on technical security experience
Languages English
Exam code CAS-001


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Our Unlimited Access Package will prepare you for your exam with guaranteed results, CAS-001 Study Guide. Your exam will download as a single CAS-001 PDF or complete CAS-001 testing engine as well as over +1500 other technical exam PDF and exam engine downloads. Forget buying your prep materials separately at three time the price of our unlimited access plan - skip the CAS-001 audio exams and select the one package that gives it all to you at your discretion: CAS-001 Study Materials featuring the exam engine.

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This is where your CompTIA CompTIA CASP Exams CAS-001 exam prep really takes off, in the testing your knowledge and ability to quickly come up with answers in the CAS-001 online tests. Using CompTIA CASP Exams CAS-001 practice exams is an excellent way to increase response time and queue certain answers to common issues.

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642-132 Q & A / Study Guide / Testing Engine

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---

QUESTION 1
Why is it beneficial for virtual classroom instructions to know approximately how much time each
lesson within a virtual classroom session take?

A. Knowing how much time a lesson takes allows the instructor to adjust timelines if the
participants want to go deeper or need more time.
B. Participants will pay better attention because there will be less time to review.
C. The timing of each lesson can help participants understand the relative importance of each
instructional section.
D. The instructor can manage time by stopping discussions demonstrate and comments before
the participants are finished.
E. Making effective timing decisions demonstrates leadership in the virtual classroom.

Answer: A

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
Which three preparation tasks help create an effective audio environment for a virtual classroom
session? (Choose three)

A. Use only a wireless internet connection.
B. Know how to make your phone.
C. Work in a space that is free of background noise.
D. Hold session in the early morning.
E. Put a “trainingin Progress” sign on your door or desk.
F. Use an unidirectional microphone

Answer: C,E,F

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
Why is it important for evaluation strategies to be highly specific?

A. Virtual instructors might rationalize or make excuse for unmet learning objectives.
B. Different stakeholders in organization often have competing properties and agendas.
C. Management might reward or punish depending on post session behavior on the job.
D. It is important to be factual about what went well, what needs important, and how it will be improved.

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
Which action is most effective if you want to gauge the ability of the group to use formulas during a
virtual classroom session in Microsoft Excel slide?

A. Share your application, using an expense report template; demonstrate how to input formulas in an Excel spread sheet.
B. Share your application, select a cell and type the first part of formula; ask participants to type the rest into chat.
C. Call on aparticipantand ask that person to verbally state what the correct formula would be; given a specific set of criteria
D. Pass control of your desktop to a participant and ask that person to type in the correct formula; ask the group to continue.

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
What is a key consideration for deciding whether you should record a virtual classroom session?

A. Session recordings that are posted to a company intranet may be subject to attribute laws.
B. Participants may demand to know in advance what you plan to do with the recording.
C. Conflicts about confidentially may cause participants to be less interactive.
D. Participants may be distracted by concerns about what their recorded voice like.

Answer: A

Explanation:

---

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---

QUESTION 1
Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company’s LAN. This
upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network
requirements, bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST
step in the planning process?

A. Conduct a vulnerability scan
B. Establish a network baseline
C. Conduct traffic analysis
D. Conduct a risk assessment

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity.
Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity?

A. Behavioral Based IDS
B. Signature Based IDS
C. Behavioral Based IPS
D. Signature Based IPS

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network?

A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider.
B. Create a list of requirements and constraints.
C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar.
D. Choose the correct operating system version.

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?

A. A username and PIN
B. A username and password
C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card
D. A username, password, and key fob number

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial
cable?

A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

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---

QUESTION 1
You work as a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has a user
owned custom unit called Certkingdom_Proj that needs to be accessed by employees in Certkingdom.com’s
Research department. The Research department employees want the business unit that they
make use of to host Certkingdom_Proj.
When Certkingdom.com releases A new policy that requires employees to produce their own new
Projects, you decide to have the role of the employees who owns Certkingdom_Proj copied with the
intention of assigning it to the Research department employees.
You now need to configure the security settings for Certkingdom_Proj.
Which two of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider having the Business Unit disabled.
Thereafter a new Business level should be created with the access level set to Business Unit.
B. You should consider having the Share privilege permitted with the access level set to User.
C. You should consider having the Read privilege assigned to the Business Unit.
D. You should consider having the privilege appended with the access level set to User.
E. You should consider having a privilege created with the access level configured to the User.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 2
You work as an administrator at Certkingdom.com. You have received instructions from the CIO to modify
the relationships within Certkingdom.com’s Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 environment. The requirements
are listed below:
• The entities CertkingdomSupplier, CertkingdomContact and CertkingdomCustom should have a 1:N relationship.
• CertkingdomSupplier should be the principal entity.
• The entities CertkingdomSupplier, CertkingdomContact and CertkingdomCustom should have a N:N relationship
You now need to need to apply the mapping.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should map a field from the CertkingdomSupplier entity to the CertkingdomContact entity.
B. You should publish the CertkingdomSupplier entity to the CertkingdomCustom entity.
C. You should edit the CertkingdomCustom entity to the CertkingdomSupplier entity.
D. You should change the status of the CertkingdomContact entity to the CertkingdomSupplier entity.

Answer: A

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 3
You work as a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 administrator at Certkingdom.com. You are in the process of
modifying certain relationships within Certkingdom.com’s Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 environment. You
have received instruction from the CIO to set up the 1:N relationship between the CertkingdomAccount
and CertkingdomIncident entities to comply with the following set criteria:
• As soon as a different employee is assigned to the account, the active incidents must be
available that employee.
• The incidents of the previous employees should be closed.
Which of the following actions should you take?

A. The best option is to set the cascading behavior for the relationship to parental.
B. The best option is to open the form and add a section to cascade User-Owned.
C. The best option is to set an attribute of type varchar with format text to referential.
D. The best option is to set up the cascading behavior to Cascading. You should also set the
cascading rule for Assign to cascade Active.

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 4
You work as a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 administrator at Certkingdom.com. You are currently adding a
custom feature to the CertkingdomContact entity. CertkingdomContact will be used by Certkingdom.com employees to
hold client data. You have configured CertkingdomContact to hold data in the plain text format.
The CIO has informed you that multiple lines must be available for entering text since the amount
of data is so vast.
Which of the following actions should you take to make sure that the custom feature is able to
maintain a textbox with multiple lines? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You should create a workflow with Microsoft Office SharePoint Designer 2007. You should also
implement a feature of type ntext.
B. You should implement a feature of type varchar with format TextArea. You should also
implement a feature of type ntext.
C. You should implement a new content type and associate it with the relevant document. You
should also implement a feature of type ntext.
D. You should implement the State field to inherit the regional setting. You should also implement
a feature of type ntext.

Answer: B

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
You work as the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com’s Sales
department employs a custom entity named Certkingdom_Sales, which is configured as the primary entity
in the Sales relationship.
During the course of the day you have received numerous complaints from Certkingdom.com users stating
that they are inable to relate existing Sales with Certkingdom_Sales when creating new Accounts in the
Certkingdom_Sales entity.
Which combination of the following actions should you take to address this issue?

A. The best option is to consider adding the Sales relationship attribute to the Certkingdom_Sales.
B. The best option is to consider selecting the Work Offline option adding the relationship.
C. The best option is to consider modifying the site master page to contain the relationship.
D. The best option is to consider publishing the Certkingdom_Sales after creating the relationship.
E. The best option is to consider applying a data connection file the relationship.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

---

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---

QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe the benefits of the Business Advocate (BA) feature? (Choose two.)

A. It enablesrouting of calls to the agent that is most idle.
B. It dynamically matches a customer to an optimal agent.
C. It provides conditional routing of calls to agent queues.
D. It allows for dynamic reporting of call center activities in custom methods.
E. It uses advanced algorithms to efficiently route calls to agents.

Answer: B,E

Explanation: Reference Avaya Aura™Call Center Feature Reference 6.0 page 78

---

QUESTION 2
What are three added features when you upgrade form Basic Avaya Call Center to Avaya Call
Center Elite? (Choose three.)

A. Service Level Maximize
B. Advocate
C. Hunt Group
D. Call Management System (CMS)
E. Agent Selection (EAS)

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation: Reference : Avaya Aura™Call Center Feature Reference 6.0Page358
Programming Call Vectors in Avaya Aura™Call Center 6.0 Page 205

---

QUESTION 3
A supervisor wants to endure that a specified group of agents logout at a specified time during the work week.
How can this be accomplished?

A. with After Call Work (ACW) Agent Considered Idle
B. with Forced Agent Logout Time
C. with Interruptible Aux Notification Timer (sec)
D. with Maximum Time Agent in ACW before logout (sec)

Answer: B
Reference:Administering Avaya Aura™Call Center Features 6.0 page 11

---

QUESTION 4
A customer has Business Advocate (BA) features turned on.
Which technique can be used to protect the predetermined level of service to a valued skill, II
volumes or agent staffing levels change abruptly?

A. queue priority levels
B. reserve agents
C. skill preference levels
D. percent allocation

Answer: D

Explanation:

---

QUESTION 5
A call center operations manager wants agents to manually enter a code to identify the reason for
being in auxiliary (AUX) work status.
Which feature must be activated on the system-parameters custom-options to allow this?

A. Call Work Codes
B. Authorization Codes
C. Reason Codes
D. AUX State Codes

Answer: C

Explanation: Reference :Avaya Aura™Call Center 6.0 Overview Page 26

---

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MCT

Microsoft Certified Trainer
Become part of an elite, international community that spans more than 150 countries and regions and includes classroom and e-learning instructors, learning consultants, authors, conference presenters, and user group leaders. Microsoft Certified Trainers (MCTs) are the premier technical and instructional experts on Microsoft technologies, and are the only individuals authorized to deliver training for Microsoft Certification. Learn how you can join this exclusive group of IT professionals and developers and reap the benefits of membership.

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Level: More than one year of experience, and one of the required MCP certifications or Microsoft Dynamics certifications
Audience: IT professional and developer
Type: Microsoft Certification

Become part of an elite, international community that spans more than 150 countries and regions and includes classroom and e-learning instructors, learning consultants, authors, conference presenters, and user group leaders. Microsoft Certified Trainers (MCTs) are the premier technical and instructional experts on Microsoft technologies, and are the only individuals authorized to deliver training for Microsoft Certification. Learn how you can join this exclusive group of IT professionals and developers and reap the benefits of membership.

Level:
More than one year of experience, and one of the required MCP certifications or Microsoft Dynamics certifications
Audience: IT professional and developer
Type: Microsoft Certification

MCT Overview
Microsoft Certified Trainers meet stringent MCT certification requirements. They also receive many valuable benefits, including free access to the complete library of Official Microsoft Learning Products; substantial discounts on exams, books, and Microsoft products; members-only newsgroups and online community resources; and invitations to exclusive events and programs.

MCT certification requires an annual renewal. Each year, Microsoft Certified Trainers must complete an online application, pay an annual fee, and meet a number of program requirements to renew their certification for the coming year.

Why get certified?
Earning a Microsoft Certification validates your proven experience and knowledge in using Microsoft products and solutions. Designed to be relevant in today’s rapidly changing IT marketplace, Microsoft Certifications help you utilize evolving technologies, fine-tune your troubleshooting skills, and improve your job satisfaction.

Whether you are new to technology, changing jobs, or a seasoned IT professional, becoming certified demonstrates to customers, peers, and employers that you are committed to advancing your skills and taking on greater challenges. In addition, certification provides you with access to exclusive Microsoft Certified Professional (MCP) resources and benefits, including opportunities to connect with a vast, global network of MCPs.

MCT Benefits

Discover tools, resources, and other benefits to help you thrive as both a technologist and an educator. The following MCT certification program benefits help you build, maintain, and prove your expertise on Microsoft products and technologies—and prepare for, teach, and support blended learning solutions.

As a Microsoft Certified Trainer, you gain access to the MCT member site, where you can download your MCT certificate and MCT program logos for use on your resume.

MCT welcome kit
After enrolling in the MCT program or renewing your membership, you receive a welcome kit that includes the following:
MCT certificate: Post your certifications in your office or classroom.
MCT wallet card: Identify yourself as an MCT in your technical communities.
Microsoft Learning virtual hard disk DVDs: These DVDs contain the virtual PC images required for Microsoft Learning Products and Microsoft Dynamics courseware for new MCTs.

Helpful resources
MCT guide for Microsoft Dynamics: Explore the benefits of becoming an MCT for Microsoft Dynamics.
View the MCT guide for Microsoft Dynamics (PDF file, 477 KB)
Metrics that Matter guide: Find instructions and best practices for getting the most out of Metrics that Matter, a tool that measures customer satisfaction.
Learn about Metrics that Matter (Certkingdom.com)

Ongoing benefits and support
As an MCT, you gain access to the MCT member site, which provides all the latest news and resources, including trainer readiness resources, announcements about exams and Microsoft Learning products, and MCT program logos. The member site also provides access to the following MCT benefits.

Microsoft TechNet Subscription Professional Not for Resale (NFR): The NFR version of TechNet Subscription Professional is a premium technical resource geared toward helping IT professionals support enterprise-wide environments that have ongoing software evaluation, deployment, and troubleshooting needs. With TechNet Professional NFR, subscribers can access the complete suite of full-version Microsoft infrastructure and business solution software to evaluate and test new features, such as server consolidation, interoperability, enterprise-wide network management, and enhanced security models. TechNet subscribers will also be able to access upcoming beta releases prior to public availability, a comprehensive collection of Microsoft E-Learning courses, our continuous online concierge, and priority support on TechNet forums.

Note This offer may not be available in all countries or regions. It does not include support calls.
MCT readiness support: Join us at our monthly Live Meetings (the Third Thursday sessions) or view recorded sessions in our MCT Readiness Library. We offer technical readiness and portfolio readiness to help you prepare for new courses in less time, while having more impact. We also offer a soft skills track that can help you fine-tune your training delivery skills.

OneNote trainer preparation packs: Valuable trainer preparation packs in Office OneNote format, allowing you to make notes, add content, and share your Notebook with colleagues.
MCT Download Center: Receive free, comprehensive access to the entire Microsoft Learning and Microsoft Dynamics library of learning materials.
Microsoft Learning Courseware Library: Find additional courseware developed by the MCT community.
MCT Community: Join exclusive private communities for peer support and networking, and communicate with the Microsoft Learning team.
Courseware support: Get direct Microsoft support on questions about Official Microsoft Learning Products.
Metrics that Matter: Track customer satisfaction.

Special offers
Recognizing how important MCTs are to customers' success, Microsoft and many other companies offer products, services, and events to MCTs free of charge or at a special price.
Note Some offers might not be available in all countries or regions. All offers are subject to change.
Discounts on Microsoft Certification exams: Take advantage of discounts on exams while earning new MCT competencies.
Learning Rewards: Distribute discounted certification exam vouchers to students, and earn referral points redeemable for valuable rewards.

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Camtasia Studio and Snagit tools: With Camtasia Studio, you can easily record sound and images from your computer to create training, demo, and presentation videos. Snagit helps you capture, edit, and share exactly what you see on your computer screen.
Note The Camtasia Studio and Snagit special offer provided by TechSmith is currently unavailable. TechSmith is working on updating its systems to provide our community with the new editions of Camtasia Studio and Snagit.

Early invitations to Microsoft Certification beta exams: Be among the first to earn new certifications by taking certification exams before they are available to the public. Please note that we offer a limited number of beta exam vouchers, and they are allocated on a "first come, first served" basis.

Free access to Microsoft E-Learning in the Learning Catalog: Blend e-learning courses with classroom training to deliver customized learning solutions.

Large discounts on Microsoft (O'Reilly) books: Receive a 40 percent discount on all printed books and a 50 percent discount on all e-books in the Microsoft Press (O'Reilly) catalog.

Safari Library subscription discount: Access the full Safari Library at US$29.99 per month (the regular price is US$42.99 per month).
MCT Special Offers page: Receive free software offers, specially priced practice tests, and more.
Exclusive invitations to and discounts on Microsoft events: These invitations are offered periodically in connection with Tech Ed and other major Microsoft events.
Invitations to join beta programs for Microsoft software: Learn about new Microsoft products by getting hands-on experience with a beta version.

Requirements
Microsoft recognizes and promotes MCTs as Microsoft technical and instructional experts. Program requirements help ensure that MCTs consistently satisfy customers.
For the MCT program year, MCTs must fulfill the following requirements.

Meet MCT competency requirements for each course they deliver.
Acquire a valid Microsoft Certification
Demonstrate instructional presentation skills
Administer course evaluations to every student and maintain high customer-satisfaction scores.
New MCTs must deliver at least one Microsoft course within their first year as an MCT.
At various times during the program year, Microsoft conducts audits of the MCT community to ensure compliance with program requirements.
Find detailed requirements in the MCT Program Guide
If you have questions about the certification process or about the program requirements, contact a Microsoft Regional Service Center near you.
Find a Microsoft Regional Service Center
Acquire a valid Microsoft Certification

An MCT must hold one or more related certifications in order to teach a Microsoft Learning or Microsoft Dynamics course. The full list of courses that an MCT is certified to teach is recorded in a transcript.

Before you can apply to become an MCT, you must acquire one of the Microsoft Certified Professional (MCP) premier certifications. For the MCT program year 2012, these are the premier certifications:

Systems Engineer
Systems Administrator
Systems Administrator: Security
Desktop Support Technician
Microsoft Certified IT Professional
Microsoft Certified Professional Developer
Microsoft Office 2007 Specialist
Microsoft Office 2010 Specialist
Microsoft Certified Business Management Solutions Specialist
Microsoft Certified Business Management Solutions Professional
Microsoft Certified Master
Microsoft Office 2007 Master
Microsoft Certified Architect
Explore the benefits of becoming an MCT for Microsoft Dynamics.
View the MCT Guide for Microsoft Dynamics (PDF file, 478 KB)
For more information about Microsoft Dynamics or related business product certifications, send an email message to mbs-cert@microsoft.com
Demonstrate instructional presentation skills

To demonstrate that you have instructional presentation skills, you must indicate on your MCT application that you have completed one of the following requirements.
Option 1. Provide evidence of your Certified Technical Trainer (CompTIA CTT+) certification from CompTIA
CompTIA CTT+ is a cross-industry certification that validates that a technical instructor has attained a standard of excellence in the training industry. CompTIA CTT+ consists of two tests: a computer-based test that is available at Prometric testing centers, and a video submission.

Learn more about CompTIA CTT+ certification (Comptia.org)
For more information about the CTT+ program, send an email message to CompTIA

Option 2. Attend and pass a presentation skills course
Prove that you have passed a presentation skills course or train-the-trainer course from a CompTIA Learning Alliance provider or from one of the additional presentation skills training providers listed in the following spreadsheet.

Find a CompTIA Learning Alliance training provider (Comptia.org)

Find a Microsoft-approved presentation skills training provider (Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, 28 KB)

Option 3. Prove that you are an experienced technical trainer
Provide evidence of your certified instructor credential from any one of these vendors:

Microsoft
Cisco Systems
Citrix
Novell
Oracle
Option 4. Prove that you are an instructor at an accredited academic institution
Provide evidence of your employment status with an accredited academic institution.

See the MCT Program Guide for guidelines